If you read this article in 2013 егэ ответы

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово READ так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

If you _________ this article in 2013, you probably imagine video games as we know them now. Nowadays we are used to online games full of colour and action.

1

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово ONE так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

The invention of video games

Do you know the story behind the invention of video games? Here is the story of the __________ video game.

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3


2

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово CALL так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

However, the story about the invention of video games dates back to the 1940s and to a patent registered by the US patent office. The invention patent _______________: «The cathode ray tube amusement.»

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3


3

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово LATE так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

It was very primitive by today’s standards but has given the inspiration for many video games created __________.

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3


4

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово NOT WANT так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

Grandma

My grandma often comes to us to babysit my sister, Ann. Yesterday she was tired after a full day of looking after an active five-year-old, but she _____________ to upset Ann and agreed to play ball in the backyard after supper.

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3


5

Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово SIT так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

After 5 minutes, she __________ down on a patio chair and said, «Grandma is too old for this.»

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3


6

Ответ: Ответ: Преобразуйте, если это необходимо, слово BE так, чтобы оно грамматически соответствовало содержанию текста.

Ann came over, put her arm around Grandma’s neck and said, «Grandma, I wish you _____________ newer.»

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3

Источник: ЕГЭ по английскому языку 06.06.2013. Основная волна. Дальний Восток. Вариант 3

Задание №7799.
Грамматика и лексика. ЕГЭ по английскому

Вставьте слово, которое грамматически будет соответствовать содержанию текста.

If you ___ (READ) this article in 2013, you probably imagine video games as we know them now. Nowadays we are used to online games full of colour and action.

Решение:
If you ARE READING this article in 2013, you probably imagine video games as we know them now. Nowadays we are used to online games full of colour and action.
Если вы читаете эту статью в 2013 году, вы, вероятно, представляете видеоигры такими, какими мы их знаем сейчас. Сегодня мы привыкли к онлайн-играм, полным красок и действий.

Показать ответ

Источник: ФИПИ. Открытый банк тестовых заданий

Сообщить об ошибке

Тест с похожими заданиями

If you __________________ this article in 2013,
you probably imagine video games as we know them now. Nowadays we are used to
online games full of colour and action.

READ

Прочитайте приведённые ниже тексты. Преобразуйте, если необходимо, слова, напечатанные заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами B4 – B10, так, чтобы они грамматически соответствовали содержанию текстов. Заполните пропуски полученными словами. Каждый пропуск соответствует отдельному заданию из группы B4 – B10.

Подготовка к ОГЭ и ЕГЭ

Среднее общее образование

Английский язык

Анализируем задания части «Грамматика» вместе с учителями английского языка, строим рассуждения и разбираем ответы.

Джалолова Светлана Анатольевна
, учитель английского языка Высшей квалификационной категории. Победитель конкурсного отбора на соискание Гранта Москвы в сфере образования 2010г. Старший эксперт ГИА ЕГЭ по английскому языку. Победитель Всероссийской Олимпиады учителей английского языка «Профи-край» 2015 год. Почетная грамота Министерства образования РФ 2014 г., Грамота победителя конкурса лучших учителей РФ 2007г., Диплом победителя конкурса на соискание Гранта Москвы 2010 г.. Стаж работы — 23 года.

Недашковская Наталья Михайловна
, Учитель английского языка Высшей квалификационной категории. Победитель ПНПО 2007 г. Победитель конкурсного отбора на соискание Гранта Москвы в сфере образования 2010г. Эксперт ГИА ОГЭ по английскому языку. Проводила педагогическую экспертизу учебных изданий при РАО 2015-2016. Почетная грамота Министерства образования РФ 2013 г., Грамота победителя конкурса лучших учителей РФ 2007г., Диплом победителя конкурса на соискание Гранта Москвы 2010 г. Стаж работы — 35 лет.
Подвигина Марина Михайловна
, Учитель английского языка Высшей квалификационной категории. Победитель ПНПО 2008 г. Победитель конкурсного отбора на соискание Гранта Москвы в сфере образования 2010г. Старший эксперт ГИА ЕГЭ по английскому языку. Проводила педагогическую экспертизу учебных изданий при РАО 2015-2016. Почетная грамота Министерства образования РФ 2015 г., Грамота победителя конкурса лучших учителей РФ 2008г., Диплом победителя конкурса на соискание Гранта Москвы 2010 г. Стаж работы — 23 года.

Трофимова Елена Анатольевна
, Учитель английского языка Высшей квалификационной категории. Старший эксперт ГИА ЕГЭ по английскому языку. Почетная грамота Министерства образования РФ 2013 г. Стаж работы — 15 лет.

Задание 1

Методическая подсказка

Это задание проверяет знание грамматики английского языка. Обратим внимание на те части речи, которые необходимо трансформировать. Важно, что при изменении формы слова часть речи не изменяется! Справа от текста могут быть даны любые из шести частей речи. Это имя существительное, наречие, количественное числительное, личное местоимение и глагол. При выполнении этого задания необходимо учитывать, какие грамматические формы имеют данные части речи. Имя существительное единственного числа принимает форму множественного числа (здесь необходимо, помимо общего правила образования множественного числа существительных, вспомнить все исключения и особенности правописания форм множественного числа существительных). Количественное числительное становится порядковым числительным (обратите внимание на сложные случаи образования и написания некоторых числительных). Имя прилагательное и наречие имеют сравнительную или превосходную степени (здесь также есть некоторые случаи, которые надо помнить). Личное местоимение может превратиться в притяжательное (краткая или полная формы), объектное или возвратное. Что касается глагола, помните, что он может стоять в личной и неличной форме (например, в виде Present Participle или Past Participle). Если глагол должен быть употреблен в личной форме, то надо определить, в каком залоге должен стоять глагол (действительном или страдательном) и в каком грамматическом времени. Для правильного определения грамматического времени, надо, во-первых, определить в каком бытийном (жизненном) времени представлено предложение или ситуация. Для этого мы, смотря на глаголы вокруг пропуска и другие указатели времени, определяем, относится ли повествование к настоящему, прошедшему или будущему. Определив время, мы должны определить временную форму. Для этого мы ищем в предложении слова-подсказки или индикаторы грамматических времен (например, every day, usually — индикаторы Present Simple, since, for, yet — индикаторы Present Perfect. Также часто помогает линия времени, которая наглядно показывает, какая существует последовательность между действиями и событиями.

Кроме того, глагол может являться частью условного предложения (есть четыре, начиная с нулевого, типа условных предложений, в каждом из которых глаголы стоят в определенных формах) или предложения, начинающегося с I wish или If only.

Не забудьте также обратить внимание на те слова, которые стоят непосредственно перед пропуском — не забывайте, что есть ряд глаголов, прилагательных, фраз и конструкций, после которых необходимо употребление инфинитива с частичкой или без частички to или герундия (например, fancy going, want to go, make symbol do smith, There»s» no point in doing smith…).

Приступаем к выполнению задания теста.

19. Around 1350, art, learning, and science started to flourish in some parts of Europe. To many people, this was the beginning

of a new golden age. This period was not the _________ golden age in Europe.

20. Greece ________ one 1,900 years before. About 500 years later, Roman civilization had been at its height.

21. Because this new golden age was something like _________ Greek and Roman periods, it is called the Renaissance. The

word «renaissance» means «rebirth.» Many Greek and Roman values were reborn in the Renaissance.

22. Windsor is a small town not far from London which is about a thousand years old. It became the setting for The Merry ___________ of Windsor,

24. What the town is famous for today is Windsor Castle, the Royal residence. From a plane Windsor Castle with its big round tower looks

like a child»s dream of a sand castle. Sadly, in 1992 fire ___________ a large part of the castle buildings.

25. Since then the Castle ________________. It required a lot of money. To pay for it, it was decided to open Buckingham

Palace to the public at selected times of the year and to charge visitors a fee.

Рассуждение

Читаем представленные тексты (это может быть и один текст), чтобы иметь общее представление, о чем идет речь. Дальше заполняем пропуски.

Номер 19.
Написано количественное числительное one, следовательно, единственной возможной формой является порядковое числительное first
. Номер 20
. Представлен глагол. Проводим блиц-анализ: пассив или актив? — актив. Это личная форма, так как у подлежащего Greece нет сказуемого, значит нужна полная форма глагола. Это не условное предложение, так как отсутствуют соответствующие слова if, unless и другие. Определяем бытийное время — прошедшее (Past), так как есть слова 1900 years before, had been. Теперь определяем грамматическое время (tense) — смотрим на время в предыдущем предложении — was not, в предложении с пропуском есть фраза 1900 years before-рисуем линию времени, выставляем точку was not в прошлом, определяем, где — слева или справа будет находиться точка 1900 years before. Она находится справа. Действия идут одно за другим в прошлом, значит глагол будет стоять во времени Past Perfect, показывая, что действие уже произошло и завершилось до глагола was not. Следующее предложение подтверждает правильность нашего выбора — had been at its height тоже до глагола was not. Следовательно, глагол have ставим в форму (Past Perfect — had had
).
Номер 21.
Здесь стоит прилагательное early (это именно прилагательное, так как оно является определением к словам Greek and Roman periods), и данное прилагательное надо поставить в сравнительную степень, поскольку период сравнивается только с греческим и римским периодами, а не со всеми периодами истории.
Номер 22.
Написано существительное wife в единственном числе. Единственная возможная трансформация — форма множественного числа wives
(существительное, заканчивающееся на -f, -fe во множественном числе меняет f на ves).
Номер 23.
Дано личное местоимение he. Данное местоимение не является в тексте подлежащим, а является дополнением, соответственно, необходимо использовать объектное местоимение him
.
Номер 24.
Дан глагол. Используем знакомый алгоритм выполнения задания): актив или пассив? — Актив, ведь подлежащее огонь (fire) может разрушить здание. Это не условное наклонение. У подлежащего нет сказуемого, значит — это глагол в личной форме. Бытийное время прошедшее, здесь указан год — 1992. И этот год также говорит о том, что это Past Simple (действие, совершаемое в определенный момент времени в прошлом). Правильная форма destroyed
.
Номер 25.
Дан глагол repair. Актив или пассив? — Пассив, замок никого починить не может, отремонтировать можно его. Не условное наклонение, личная форма, потому что оно является сказуемым. В предыдущем и последующем предложениях глаголы стоят в прошедшем времени, однако в самом предложении с пропуском есть since then, что является указателем перфектных времен. Чтобы решить, что использовать -Present Perfect или Past Perfect — мы рисуем линию времени. Ставим точку в прошлом destroyed. Глагол repair в правильной форме будет стоять справа или слева от глагола destroyed? — Справа. Значит мы ставим глагол в Present Perfect — has been repaired
.

Таким образом ответы на задания с 19 по 25 выглядят так:
19 — first, 20 — had had, 21 — earlier, 22 — wives, 23 — him, 24 — destroyed, 25 — has been repaired.

Задание 2.
Прочитайте приведенный ниже текст. Образуйте от слов, напечатанных заглавными буквами в конце строк, обозначенных номерами 26–31, однокоренные слова, так, чтобы они грамматически и лексически соответствовали содержанию текста. Заполните пропуски полученными словами. Каждый пропуск соответствует отдельному заданию из группы 26–31.

Методическая подсказка

В этой части проверяются навыки словообразования. Задание в спецификации формулируется «задания на заполнение пропуска в связном тексте путем образования родственного слова от предложенного опорного слова» при помощи суффиксов и приставок. Залогом успеха при выполнении этого задания являются два фактора-правильное определение части речи, которую необходимо вставить вместо пропуска, и знание словообразующих суффиксов и приставок. Читаем текст, обращая внимание на слова перед пропусками и следующие за ним. Определяем пропущенную часть речи, а также, имеет ли пропущенное слова отрицательную или утвердительную коннотацию.

Australia

26. In 1770, James Cook landed on the east coast of Australia and claimed the land for Great Britain. For many years after that,

only a few people came to Australia ___________. It was too far from Europe to attract many outsiders.

27. The first settlers were ______________. They were not asked if they wanted to come.

28. Moving to Australia was part of their ___________________. In time they were joined by more willing settlers who wanted

to find adventure and a better life.

29. Like the settlement of the United States, much of Australia’s history deals with the push west. There was, however, one big

In their drive westward, the Australians found no rich river valleys or fertile plains. Instead, they found only

dry empty land they called the outback.

30. The outback was _________________ any place the early settlers had ever seen. For months there would be no rain at all.

Then suddenly the skies would open up. Within hours, rivers overflowed their banks. Yet only a few days later the land

would be as dry as ever.

31. Few settlers were willing to risk their life in such a harsh land. Then gold was ___________ there in 1852. Thousands flocked

to the outback of Australia to make their fortunes.

Рассуждение

Номер 26
. Only a few people came to Australia как? — наречие, которое определяет глагол came. В последующем предложении идет объяснение, почему это именно так происходило.
Номер 27.
The first settlers were ……….. В данной ситуации за глаголом were может стоять или прилагательное, уточняющее, какими они были, или существительное, сообщающее, кем были эти поселенцы (если этот выбор верный, то существительное будет стоять во множественном числе исходя из слова settlers во множественном числе и слова were. Последующее предложение не исключает ни одного из этих вариантов, поэтому оставляем пока обе эти опции.
Номер 28.
Moving to Australia was part of their……. Мы видим отсутствующую часть фразы с предлогом of, в которой до и после предлога должны стоять существительные, и перед пропуском стоит краткое притяжательное местоимение their, которое определяет существительное. Следовательно, пропущенная часть речи это существительное.
Номер 29.
There was, however, one big…… После конструкции There was должно стоять существительное, что подтверждается наличием перед пропуском числительного и имени прилагательного, определяющих ту же часть речи. Следовательно, пропущенное слово существительное единственного числа (индикатор числа слово one).
Номер 30.
The outback was ………….any place the early settlers had ever seen. После was может стоять или причастие или прилагательное или существительное. Так как существительное уже есть (place), следовательно, пропущенная часть речи -прилагательное.
Номер 31.
Then gold was………there in 1852. Аналогичная ситуация номеру 30. Исходя из смысла всего предложения, предполагаем, что скорее всего это будет past participle, определяющее, что произошло с золотом в 1852 году.

Отметив на полях КИМа, рядом с каждым пропуском определенные нами части речи, мы открываем сами слова справа.

Номер 26
— наречие, значит нужно подставить суффикс -ly, получаем слово willingly
. Перечитываем абзац со вставленным словом — смысл сохранен.
Номер 27
— слово prison предполагает, что нам нужно существительное, уточняющее, кем были первые поселенцы. Последующее предложение подтверждает это. Образуем существительное prisoners
во множественном числе.
Номер 28
— образуем от слова punish собирательное существительное punishment
, которое завершает предложение, делая его логическим дополнением идеи, высказанной в двух предыдущих предложениях.
Номер 29
— образуем от слова differ существительное difference. Перечитываем абзац, образованное существительное идеально вписывается в него, так как в абзаце идет речь о разнице в освоении запада в Соединенных Штатах и Австралии.
Номер 30
— нам предлагают заменить слово like, которое само по себе уже является прилагательным. Следовательно, часть речи уже определена сама собой, мы должны только, сохранив эту часть речи, добавить отрицательную приставку с тем, чтобы образовать новое, подходящее по смыслу, слово — unlike.
Номер 31
— нам дано слово covered, которое уже является причастием. Следовательно, как и в предыдущем случае, нам нужна отрицательная приставка. В случае с covered их может быть две: dis- и un- . Uncovered — приоткрыл, снял покрытие…. Discovered — обнаружил, открыл что-то новое. В данном контексте подходит второе значение. Следовательно, верное слово — discovered
.

Ответы:
26 — willingly, 27 — prisoners, 28 — punishment, 29 — difference, 30 — unlike, 31 — discovered.

3. Задание под номерами 32-38, за которое дается максимальное количество баллов —
7 (по 1 баллу за каждый правильный ответ), сформулировано следующим образом:

Методическая подсказка

В третьем задании (32-38) части раздела предлагается связный текст с пропусками и 4 вариантами их заполнения (1-4), из которых только один является правильным. Это задание проверяет умение использовать лексику в коммуникативном контексте с учетом специфики:

  • форм одного слова и слов, близких по написанию и звучанию;
  • значений одного слова и его синонимов, антонимов, омонимов;
  • норм лексической сочетаемости, принятых в английском языке и т.д.

Для эффективного выполнения этого задания следует:
1. Просмотреть весь текст с пропусками, постараться понять его содержание
2. Читать внимательно весь фрагмент, но особое внимание уделять предложению с пропущенным словом
3. Постараться предугадать пропущенное слово, опираясь на контекст, окружающие пропуск слова.
4. Изучить все предложенные варианты ответа, выбрать наиболее подходящий с учетом значения и норм лексической сочетаемости пропущенного слова. Особое внимание следует уделить синонимам (у них могут быть разные оттенки значения, они могут иметь различия в управлении и сочетаемости с другими словами), а также с созвучными словами или словами со сходным написанием (у них могут быть разные значения).
5. Прочитать предложение с пропуском еще раз, убедиться, что выбранное слово является наиболее правильным для заполнения пропуска. Определить, почему остальные слова не подходят.
6. Если не можете осознанно выбрать ни один из предложенных вариантов, выбирайте ответ интуитивно, не оставляйте задание без ответа.

Например, дан текст с пропусками:

Growing up with Joey

I enjoy thinking of my childhood. But when I think of my home town where I grew up, all that I 32
__________ to remember is dust. I remember the brown, crumbly dust of late summer that gets into the eyes and makes them water. It is the kind of dust that gets into the throat and between the 33
_________ of bare brown feet. I don»t know why I should remember only the dust. There must have been green lawns and paved streets under leafy shady trees somewhere in town. One day returns to me clearly for some reason. I was resting under the great oak tree in the yard. I was deep in thought which I have now forgotten except that it involved some secret. Joey and a bunch of kids were bored now with the old tire hanging from an oak limb. It had 34
_______ them busy for a while. “Hey, Lizabeth,” Joey yelled. He never talked when he could yell. “He, Lizabeth, let’s go somewhere.” I came back from the thoughts of my private world. “Where at, Joey?” The truth was that we were becoming tired 35
____ the empty summer days. “Let’s go over to Miss Lottie’s,” said Joey. The idea caught on at once. Annoying Miss Lottie was always fun. I was still child 3
6
___________ to run along with the group. We went over old fences and through bushes that tore our 3
7
________ ripped clothes, back to where Miss Lottie lived. I think now that we must have looked partly funny and partly sad. There were six of us, all different ages, dressed in only one thing 38
________. The girls wore faded dresses that were too long or too short. The boys wore patched pants. A little cloud of dust followed our thin legs and bare feet as we tramped over the dusty ground.

32.
1) seem, 2) think, 3) look, 4) believe

Ответ:
1,
так как остальные варианты не подходят по смыслу.

33.
1) fingers, 2) thumbs, 3) toes, 4) pinkies

Ответ
: 3
, так как речь идет о ноге, пальцы на ногах — toes.

34.
1) got, 2) preserved, 3) held, 4) kept

Ответ:
4
, сочетаемость слов — keep busy.

35.
1) from, 2) for, 3) of, 4) by

Ответ:
3
, глагол to be tired используется в паре с предлогом of

36.
1) yet, 2) enough, 3) so far, 4) after all

Ответ:
2
, вариант 1 используется в вопросах или отрицательных предложениях, вариант 4 обычно занимает место в конце предложения, вариант 3 сочетается с совершенными временами.

37.
1) before, 2) already, 3) earlier, 4) sooner

Ответ:
2
, так как already употребляется с тем, что ранее произошло и имеет значение на момент речи.

38.
1) everyone, 2) anyone, 3) all, 4) each

Ответ: 4
, по смыслу в предложении подходит значение «каждый» — each.

МИНИСТЕРСТВО ОБРАЗОВАНИЯ И НАУКИ РФ

ФБГОУ ВПО «ОРЕНБУРГСКИЙ ГОСУДАРСТВЕННЫЙ ПЕДАГОГИЧЕСКИЙ УНИВЕРСИТЕТ»

ИНСТИТУТ ПОВЫШЕНИЯ КВАЛИФИКАЦИИ И ПРОФЕССИОНАЛЬНОЙ ПЕРЕПОДГОТОВКИ РАБОТНИКОВ ОБРАЗОВАНИЯ

ВЫПУСКНАЯ РАБОТА

Формирование стратегий выполнения текстовых заданий

в формате ЕГЭ по английскому языку

(на примере раздела «Чтение»)

Выполнила:

Сергеева Анастасия Ивановна, учитель английского языка, МАОУ «Михайловская СОШ»

Руководитель:
Репина Надежда Анатольевна, доцент, кандидат педагогических наук

Оренбург, 2015

Пояснительная записка………………………………………………………………………1-13

Комплекс упражнений……………………………………………………………………….14-50

Список использованных источников……………………………………………………..51

Приложение………………………………………………………………………………………52-57

Пояснительная записка

В хорошо известном документе Совета Европы «Общеевропейские компетенции владения иностранным языком: изучение, преподавание, оценка» компетенция определяется как сумма знаний, умений и личностных качеств, которые позволяют человеку совершать различные действия. Единый государственный экзамен (ЕГЭ) по английскому языку позволяет установить уровень освоения участниками федерального государственного стандарта среднего (полного) общего образования в области иноязычной коммуникативной компетенции. Предполагается, что учащиеся общеобразовательных школ должны достигнуть уровень В1 иноязычной коммуникативной компетенции (общеевропейская терминология), а учащиеся школ с углубленным изучением иностранного языка, гимназий и лицеев – уровня В2.

Актуальность темы

Перспектива перехода ЕГЭ по английскому языку в разряд обязательных;

Чтение является составной частью ЕГЭ. В связи с этим чтение занимает существенное место в современных учебно-методических комплексах по английскому языку на всех этапах обучения. Раздел «Чтение» – объемный вид деятельности в ЕГЭ, который оценивает умение читать. Чтение – трудный вид речевой деятельности.

Проблема
в том, что анализ результатов подготовки к ЕГЭ показывает, что 50% учащихся трудно дается выполнение раздела «Чтение», в частности поисковое. Следовательно, необходимо приучать учащихся работать с текстами на более высоком уровне. Все вышесказанное определило тему работы: «Формирование стратегий выполнения текстовых заданий в формате ЕГЭ по английскому языку (на примере раздела «Чтение»)»
.

Объект исследования:
подготовка учащихся общеобразовательной школы к сдаче Единого государственного экзамена.

Предмет исследования:
подготовка к сдаче раздела ЕГЭ «Чтение».

Цель данной работы
– теоретически обосновать виды чтения и разработать систему упражнений, способствующую наиболее эффективной подготовке учащихся к успешному выполнению заданий ЕГЭ по разделу «Чтение».

Основными задачами работы являются:

    охарактеризовать виды чтения как вида речевой деятельности;

    разработать систему упражнений для работы с текстами;

Спецификация контрольных измерительных материалов для проведения единого государственного экзамена по английскому языку

1. Назначение экзаменационной работы

Контрольные измерительные материалы позволяют установить уровень освоения выпускниками Федерального компонента государственного образовательного стандарта основного общего и среднего (полного) общего образования.

Результаты единого государственного экзамена по иностранному языку признаются общеобразовательными учреждениями, в которых реализуются образовательные программы среднего (полного) общего образования, как результаты государственной (итоговой) аттестации, а образовательными учреждениями среднего профессионального образования и образовательными учреждениями высшего профессионального образования — как результаты вступительных испытаний по иностранному языку.

2. Документы, определяющие содержание экзаменационной работы

1. Федеральный компонент государственных стандартов основного общего и среднего (полного) общего образования, базовый и профильный уровень (приказ Минобразования России от 05.03.2004 № 1089).

2. Примерные программы по иностранным языкам // Новые государственные стандарты по иностранному языку. 2-11 классы / Образование в документах и комментариях. М.: АСТ: Астрель, 2004.

3. Программы общеобразовательных учреждений. Английский язык для 10-11 классов школ с углубленным изучением иностранных языков. М.: Просвещение, 2003.

4. Программы для общеобразовательных учреждений. Немецкий язык для общеобразовательных школ с углубленным изучением немецкого языка. М.: Просвещение: МАРТ, 2004.

5. Программы общеобразовательных учреждений. Французский язык для 1-11 классов школ с углубленным изучением иностранных языков. М.: Просвещение, 2001.

6. Программы общеобразовательных учреждений. Испанский язык для 5-11 классов школ с углубленным изучением иностранных языков. М.: Просвещение, 2005.

При разработке КИМ также учитываются:

7. Общеевропейские компетенции владения иностранным языком: Изучение, преподавание, оценка. МГЛУ, 2003.

3. Подходы к отбору содержания, разработке структуры КИМ ЕГЭ

Целью единого государственного экзамена по иностранному языку является определение уровня иноязычной коммуникативной компетенции экзаменуемого. Основное внимание при этом уделяется речевой компетенции, т.е. коммуникативным умениям в разных видах речевой деятельности: аудировании, чтении, письме, а также языковой компетенции, т.е. языковым знаниям и навыкам. Социокультурные знания и умения проверяются опосредованно в разделе «Чтение».

Следовательно, КИМ ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам содержит разделы «Аудирование», «Чтение», «Грамматика и лексика» и «Письмо». При этом следует иметь в виду, что раздел «Чтение» имеет в качестве объектов контроля умения в соответствующих видах речевой деятельности, эти умения обеспечиваются необходимым уровнем развития языковой компетенции экзаменуемых. Успешное выполнение заданий на контроль рецептивных видов речевой деятельности обеспечивается знанием лексических единиц, морфологических форм и синтаксических конструкций и навыками их узнавания/распознавания.

4. Структура КИМ ЕГЭ

При подготовке к ЕГЭ по английскому языку в разделе «Чтение» следует заранее ознакомить учащихся с форматом данной части экзаменационной работы. Рекомендуемое время выполнения данного раздела – 30 минут. Максимальный результат -20 баллов. Раздел «Чтение» состоит из трех заданий. Каждое задание проверяет тот или иной вид чтения: понимание основного содержания текста, понимание структурно-смысловых связей текста, детальное понимание текста.

Задание базового уровня (10) – задание на контроль умений просмотрового чтения, направленного на понимание основного содержания прочитанного материала. Максимальный балл -7. Задание повышенного уровня(11)- задание на контроль понимания структурно-смысловых связей текста. Максимальный балл -6. Задания высокого уровня (12-18) направлено на контроль изучающего чтения, требующего детального понимания прочитанного. Максимальный балл -7.

Кодификатор

элементов содержания и требований к уровню подготовки выпускников

образовательных организаций для проведения единого государственного

экзамена по АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ

Кодификатор элементов содержания и требований к уровню подготовки выпускников образовательных организаций для проведения единого государственного экзамена по английскому языку (далее – кодификатор) является одним из документов, определяющих структуру и содержание КИМ ЕГЭ. Он составлен на основе Федерального компонента государственных стандартов основного общего и среднего (полного) общего образования по иностранному языку (базовый и профильный уровни) (приказ Минобразования России от 05.03.2004 № 1089).

В кодификатор не включены элементы содержания, выделенные курсивом в разделе «Обязательный минимум содержания основных образовательных программ» стандарта: данное содержание подлежит изучению, но не включается в раздел «Требования к уровню подготовки выпускников» стандарта, т.е. не является объектом контроля.

1. Перечень элементов содержания, проверяемых на едином

государственном экзамене по английскому языку

Понимание основного содержания сообщений, несложных

Полное и точное понимание информации прагматических

текстов, публикаций научно-популярного характера,

отрывков из произведений художественной литературы

Выборочное понимание необходимой/интересующей

информации из текста статьи, проспекта

Понимание структурно-смысловых связей текста

2. Перечень требований к уровню подготовки выпускников, достижение которых проверяется на едином государственном экзамене по английскому языку

Код требования

Знания, умения и навыки, проверяемые на ЕГЭ

(публицистические, художественные, научно-популярные,

прагматические) с использованием различных

стратегий/видов чтения в соответствии с коммуникативной

Использовать ознакомительное чтение в целях понимания

публикаций научно-познавательного характера, отрывков из

произведений художественной литературы

извлечения необходимой/запрашиваемой информации из

текста статьи, проспекта

использовать изучающее чтение в целях полного понимания

информации прагматических текстов, публикаций научно-

познавательного характера, отрывков из произведений

художественной литературы

Отделять главную информацию от второстепенной,

выявлять наиболее значимые факты

Определять свое отношение к прочитанному

Определять временную и причинно-следственную

взаимосвязь событий, прогнозировать развитие/результат

излагаемых фактов/событий, обобщать описываемые

факты/явления

информации; понимать смысл текста и его проблематику,

используя элементы анализа текста

Стратегии подготовки к разделу «Чтение»

Для успешной сдачи экзамена необходимо отработать стратегии выполнения всех трех типов заданий. Это поможет избежать потери времени на экзамене и поможет сконцентрировать внимание на важных моментах каждого задания. При подготовке рекомендуется выполнять задание, опираясь на пошаговые инструкции. Данные рекомендации к каждому типу заданий предлагаю использовать учащимся при выполнении работы.

В первом задании
(10)
надо установить соответствие между заголовком, темой или крат­ким утверждением и небольшим текстом. В задании предлагаются семь коротких текстов, отмеченных цифрами 1-7 и восемь заголовков, отмечен­ных буквами А-Н. Один заголовок — лишний. За каждое правильно установленное соответствие дается 1 балл, мак­симально 7- баллов.
Проверяются умения понимать основную идею (содержание) высказывания, отделять главное от второстепенного, игнорировать избыточную информацию и незнакомые слова, не мешающие пониманию основного содержания.

До чтения текстов
следует:

    что их объединяет (тема, проблема, ситуация, ключевое слово и т.д.)

    чем они отличаются друг от друга: проблемой, отношением к проблеме и т.д.

    В процессе изучения заголовков подчеркивать в них ключе­вые слова, делать другие пометки, помогающие понять их смысл и отличия.

    Глядя
    на заголовки, попытаться предвосхитить основное содержание текста, подобрать слова/словосочетания, которые необходимы для
    раскрытия данной темы/ проблемы/ ситуации.

Во время второго прочтения
последовательно просматривать каждый из предложенных текстов, игнорируя незнако­мые слова и выражения, не углубляясь в детальное понимание.

    После беглого просмотра каждого текста подобрать к нему один или несколько за­головков, предложенных в задании.

    По мере прочтения каждого текста отмечать все возможные варианты ответа рядом с текстом.

    Делать нужные исправления по ходу чтения, т.к. некоторые варианты предыдущих ответов будут отпадать методом исключения

    При возникших затруднениях с определением соответствия текста заголовку (теме, крат­кому утверждению), прочитать текст и попытаться сформулировать его основную идею самостоятельно, затем выбрать наиболее близкую по содержанию из оставшихся вариан­тов ответа и отметить ее.

Во время второго прочтения

    Обратить особое внимание на тексты, где изначально были выбраны несколько возмож­ных соответствий.

    Обосновать самому себе выбор того или иного соответствия с опорой на текст.

    Проверить правильность других выбранных соответствий.

После прочтения

    Определить лишний заголовок (тему, краткое утверждение)

Во втором задании (11)
задании дается текст с шестью пропусками, обозначенными буквами (A-F), и семь фрагментов предложений для заполнения пропусков, обозначенных цифрами (1-7). Один фрагмент предложения — лишний. Надо установить соответствие между частью текста и пропущенным фрагментом предложения. За каждое правильно установленное соответствие дается 1 балл. Максимально — 6 баллов.

Во время первого прочтения

    Заранее ознакомиться с форматом задания и с требованиями по заполнению бланков для данного задания.

    Бегло просмотреть весь текст (без выделенных фрагментов), попытаться определить его тему и основное содержание.

Во время второго прочтения
:

    Читать текст последовательно, обращая особое внимание на последнее слово или выра­жение перед каждым пропуском
    ;
    Если это слово или выражение требует определенного согласования или управления (использование герундия, инфинитива, предлога, союза и т.д.), надо искать соответствующее начало в выделенном фрагменте.

    Если одна и та же грамматическая структура используется в начале нескольких выде­ленных фрагментов, учитывать смысловое содержание предложения с пропуском. а также предыдущих и последующих предложений.

    По ходу чтения отмечать все возможные варианты соответствий, указывая нужные бук­вы рядом с цифрой пропуска или нужные цифры рядом с буквами, обозначающими вы­деленные фрагменты,

    Делать нужные исправления по ходу чтения, т.к. после каждого заполненного пробела неясные варианты ответов будут определяться точнее, отпадать методом исключения.

    Обратить особое внимание на про пуски, где изначально были выбраны несколько воз­можных соответствий. Обосновать для себя выбор того или иного соответствия с учетом грамматических и лексических норм сочетаемости, принятых в английском языке и/или с опорой на содержание текста.

    Проверить обоснованность других выбранных соответствий.

После прочтения

    Записать окончательный вариант ответа в таблицу после задания.

    Определить лишний фрагмент.

    Еще раз проверить точность записи всех ответов.

В третьем задании (12-18)
части раздела чтения предлагаются семь тестовых заданий (12-18). К каждому заданию предлагается четыре варианта ответа, обо­значенных цифрами (1-4), из которых только один является правильным. Как правило, ­это либо начало предложения, к которому предлагается четыре возможных варианта окон­чания, либо вопрос, к которому дается четыре варианта ответа. Для каждого задания (12-18) надо выбрать один правильный ответ из четырех предложенных. За каждый правильно выбранный ответ дается 1 балл; максимально — 7 баллов.

До чтения текста

    Заранее ознакомиться с форматом задания и с требованиями по заполнению бланков от­вета для данного задания.

    Прочитать только вопросы или начала предложений без предложенных вариантов отве­та, чтобы определить примерное содержание текста, а также характер запрашиваемой

    ин
    формации:

Во время первого прочтения

    Выполнять задание последовательно. Помнить, что последовательность

    тестовых вопро­сов связана с последовательностью развития сюжета текста.

    С каждым вопросом работать по предлагаемой схеме:

    определить суть запрашиваемой информации,
    т.е. понять, что лежит в основе за­прашиваемой информации: слово, словосочетание, предложение, абзац и или весь текст;

    найти место,
    где запрашиваемая информация дается в тексте;

    понять, чем предлагаемые варианты ответов отличаются
    друг от друга;

    отбросить
    очевидно неверные варианты и определить наиболее вероятный ответ;

    доказать

    ,
    что остальные варианты неверны или что в тексте нет информации, пред­лагаемой в, а также на различия между явно и неявно выраженной информацией.

    Если не можете осознанно выбрать ни один из предложенных вариантов, не понимаете сути вопроса, все равно не оставляйте задание без ответа. Выбирайте ответ интуитивно.

После прочтения

    Убедиться в правильности выбора ответа в каждом тестовом задании.

    Зафиксировать результаты выполнения задания на черновике так, чтобы их можно было легко перенести в бланк ответа.

При регулярном выполнении заданий по чтению с учетом данных стратегий данные алгоритмы выполнения заданий способны стать тем руководством к действию, которое позволит эффективно выполнить задание.

II
Комплекс упражнений.

Тренировочные упражнения

    По­ни­ма­ние основного со­дер­жа­ния текста

1. Places to stay in

2. Arts and culture

3. New country image

5. Different landscapes

6. Transport system

7. National languages

A.
Belgium has always had a lot more than the faceless administrative buildings that you can see in the outskirts of its capital, Brussels. A number of beautiful historic cities and Brussels itself offer impressive architecture, lively nightlife, first-rate restaurants and numerous other attractions for visitors. Today, the old-fashioned idea of ‘boring Belgium’ has been well and truly forgotten, as more and more people discover its very individual charms for themselves.

B.
Nature in Belgium is varied. The rivers and hills of the Ardennes in the southeast contrast sharply with the rolling plains which make up much of the northern and western countryside. The most notable features are the great forest near the frontier with Germany and Luxembourg and the wide, sandy beaches of the northern coast.

C.
It is easy both to enter and to travel around pocket- sized Belgium which is divided into the Dutchspeaking north and the French-speaking south. Officially the Belgians speak Dutch, French and German. Dutch is slightly more widely spoken than French, and German is spoken the least. The Belgians, living in the north, will often prefer to answer visitors in English rather than French, even if the visitor’s French is good.

D.
Belgium has a wide range of hotels from 5-star luxury to small family pensions and inns. In some regions of the country, farm holidays are available. There visitors can (for a small cost) participate in the daily work of the farm. There are plenty of opportunities to rent furnished villas, flats, rooms, or bungalows for a holiday period. These holiday houses and flats are comfortable and well-equipped.

E.
The Belgian style of cooking is similar to French, based on meat and seafood. Each region in Belgium has its own special dish. Butter, cream, beer and wine are generously used in cooking. The Belgians are keen on their food, and the country is very well supplied with excellent restaurants to suit all budgets. The perfect evening out here involves a delicious meal, and the restaurants and cafes are busy at all times of the week.

F.
As well as being one of the best cities in the world for eating out (both for its high quality and range), Brussels has a very active and varied nightlife. It has 10 theatres which produce plays in both Dutch and French. There are also dozens of cinemas, numerous discos and many night-time cafes in Brussels. Elsewhere, the nightlife choices depend on the size of the town, but there is no shortage of fun to be had in any of the major cities.

G.
There is a good system of underground trains, trams and buses in all the major towns and cities. In addition, Belgium’s waterways offer a pleasant way to enjoy the country. Visitors can take a one-hour cruise around the canals of Bruges (sometimes described as the Venice of the North) or an extended cruise along the rivers and canals linking the major cities of Belgium and the Netherlands.

Уста­но­ви­те со­от­вет­ствие между за­го­лов­ка­ми 1–8 и тек­ста­ми A–G. За­пи­ши­те свои от­ве­ты в таб­ли­цу. Ис­поль­зуй­те каж­дую цифру толь­ко один раз. В за­да­нии есть один лиш­ний за­го­ло­вок.

1. Places to stay in

2. Public transport

3. Cultural differences

5. Camping holidays

6. Contacts with neighbours

7. Different landscapes

A. Sweden is a land of contrast, from the Danish influence of the southwest to the Laplanders wandering freely with their reindeer in the wild Arctic north. And while Sweden in cities is stylish and modern, the countryside offers many simpler pleasures for those who look for peace and calm. The land and its people have an air of reserved calm, and still the world’s best-selling pop group Abba, which used to attract crowds of hysterical fans, come from Sweden.

B. Historically, Sweden has an interesting story. Its dealings with the outside world began, in fact, during Viking times, when in addition to the well- known surprise attacks of the nearby lands, there was much trading around the Baltic, mostly in furs and weapons. Swedish connections with the other Scandinavian countries, Norway and Denmark, have been strong since the Middle Ages. The monarchies of all three are still closely linked.

C. Sweden’s scenery has a gentler charm than that of neighbouring Norway’s rocky coast. Much of Sweden is forested, and there are thousands lakes, notably large pools near the capital, Stockholm. The lakeside resort in the centre of Sweden is popular with Scandinavians, but most visitors prefer first the Baltic islands. The largest island, Gotland, with its ruined medieval churches, is a particular attraction.

D. Sweden boasts a good range of hotels, covering the full spectrum of prices and standards. Many of them offer discounts in summer and at weekends during the winter. In addition, working farms throughout Sweden offer accommodation, either in the main farmhouse or in a cottage nearby. Forest cabins and chalets are also available throughout the country, generally set in beautiful surroundings, near lakes, in quiet forest glades or on an island in some remote place.

E. Living in a tent or caravan with your family or friends at weekends and on holiday is extremely popular in Sweden and there is a fantastic variety of special places. Most are located on a lakeside or by the sea with free bathing facilities close at hand. There are over 600 campsites in the country. It is often possible to rent boats or bicycles, play mini-golf or tennis, ride a horse or relax in a sauna. It is also possible to camp in areas away from other houses.

F. Swedes like plain meals, simply prepared from the freshest ingredients. As a country with a sea coast and many freshwater lakes, fish dishes are found on all hotel or restaurant menus. Top-class restaurants in Sweden are usually fairly expensive, but even the smallest towns have reasonably priced self-service restaurants and grill bars. Many restaurants all over Sweden offer a special dish of the day at a reduced price that includes main course, salad, soft drink and coffee.

G. Stockholm has a variety of pubs, cafes, clubs, restaurants, cinemas and theatres but in the country evenings tend to be very calm and peaceful. From August to June the Royal Ballet performs in Stockholm. Music and theatre productions take place in many cities during the summer in the open air. Outside Stockholm in the 18th-century palace there are performances of 18th-century opera very popular with tourists.

Уста­но­ви­те со­от­вет­ствие между за­го­лов­ка­ми 1–8 и тек­ста­ми A–G. За­пи­ши­те свои от­ве­ты в таб­ли­цу. Ис­поль­зуй­те каж­дую цифру толь­ко один раз. В

за
­
да
­
нии

есть

один

лиш
­
ний

за
­
го
­
ло
­
вок
.

3. Public transport

5. Places to stay in

6. Favourite food

7. Hot spots for kids

A.
Denmark, a small kingdom in northern Europe, has a lot of interesting places for tourists with children. For example, Legoland, a theme park, has become the largest tourist attraction in Denmark outside its capital Copenhagen. And Copenhagen itself is world famous for its Tivoli Gardens amusement park, which opened in 1843 in the heart of the city. The park offers ballet and circus performances, restaurants, concerts, and fireworks displays.

B.
Denmark is the smallest Scandinavian country, consisting of the Jutland peninsula, north of Germany, and over 400 islands of various sizes, some inhabited and linked to the mainland by ferry or bridge. Throughout the country, low hills provide a constant change of attractive views; there are also cool and shady forests of beech trees, large areas of open land covered with rough grass, a beautiful lake district, sand dunes and white cliffs on the coast.

C.
More than four-fifths of all Danes live in towns. The main cities represent a combination of medieval buildings, such as castles and cathedrals, and modern office buildings and homes. Denmark’s high standard of living and wide-ranging social services guarantee that the cities have no poor districts. Most people in the cities live in flats. But in the suburbs many also live in single-family houses.

D.
Denmark’s fine beaches attract many visitors, and there are hotels and pensions in all major seaside resorts. Besides, excellent inns are to be found all over the country. Some are small and only serve local travellers, but others are adapted to the tourist and have established reputations for both international dishes and local specialities. There are also private rooms to let, usually for one night, and chalets all over Denmark.

E.
There is a wide selection of places to go out in the evening, particularly in Copenhagen. Jazz and dance clubs in the capital city are top quality and world-famous performers appear regularly. There are numerous cafes, beer gardens and speciality beer bars. Entertainment available includes opera at the recently opened opera house in Copenhagen, ballet and theatre at a number of places in the larger cities, and live music of all kinds.

F.
Most Danes eat four meals a day — breakfast, lunch, dinner, and a late-evening supper. Breakfast generally consists of cereal, cheese, or eggs. Dinner, which includes fish or meat, is usually the only hot meal. A traditional Danish dinner consists of roast duckling stuffed with apples, served with red cabbage and boiled potatoes. The other Danish meals consist mostly of sandwiches.

G.
Almost all adult Danes can read and write. Danish law requires children to attend nine years of school. Primary school consists of the first seven grades, and secondary school lasts from three to five years. A five-year secondary school student can enter a university. Denmark has three universities. The University of Copenhagen is the oldest and largest. It was founded in 1479 and has about 24,000 students.

These people are interested in doing part-time courses. Read these adverts about part-time courses and choose a suitable course for each person
.

Sue’s an engineer and she works for an American company. At the moment she’s managing a project in London. She loves working abroad and she’d like to work in South America or Asia one day. She hardly ever meets people that aren’t connected with her job. She wants to meet new people, use her mind and discuss ideas. She’s looking for an interesting evening course where she can do these things.

Jackie loves music and wants to work in music industry when she leaves school. She plays the violin very well and has lessons once a week. Now she wants to learn to play the guitar or the piano. She isn’t going out or getting much exercise at the moment because she’s studying for her exams. She isn’t happy about this because she’s usually quite an active person.

Danilo is from Italy but he’s living in London at the moment. He’s working as a waiter in an Italian restaurant. He’d like to go to university in England and he’s trying to find out about courses. He likes travelling and he’s interested in talking to people from different countries. In his free time he goes to the cinema a lot and one day he’d like to work in the film industry.

1. Bring out the writer in you!

Learn how to write articles, short stories, novels.

Our professional team of writers can teach you everything you need to know. Don’t delay! Fill in the form and send it to us.

2. Current affairs — what is behind those headlines?

Do you know what’s happening in the world at the moment? This course gives you all information and chance to discuss it in small, friendly groups. You can make friends from different countries.

This course is for anyone who loves film. We will look at the work of Hitchcock, Fellini, Tarantino and others.

4. Guitar and violin lessons

I’m a patient, experienced professional musician and I’m looking for students — beginners are welcome!

Lessons at students’ homes.

5. Information technology evening courses

No computer skills? No problem! Come to our introductory courses!

These people want to find a coffee shop or a nice place to eat. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for them. Here are descriptions of five cafes in town. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for the people above.

1. Ann works for a travel agency in a small seaside resort. Every morning she has a big breakfast, as she only has a one hour lunch break.Sometimes there’s even extra work to do at lunchtime. There are a few cafes around her office, but they all serve traditional British food. She prefers unusual and quite strong flavours.

2. Mrs Black is a retired 75-year-old History teacher. She is proud of her British origin and is looking for a traditional place to spend her empty afternoons in. She doesn’t like crowded or noisy coffee shops.

3. Mr Ridle and Mr Radison are two businessmen who always work long hours. They have to deal with sales reps coming from all over Europe. At the end of a long meeting they like having a quick but high- quality meal with them.

4. Keith is a personal trainer in a sports centre. At the moment he’s much more interested in travelling. Unfortunately he is allergic to some food. He can’t stand meat, but he loves eating lots of other types of dishes, particularly eggs.

a.
The Hidden place

The most unspoilt place in town. Delicious homemade cakes and proper tea and coffee for anybody who enjoys taking their time. Try next door if you’re in a hurry! Pets welcomed. Cheap prices.

b.
At Eddie’s

This is more of all you can eat salad bar! The ideal place where you can enjoy all vegan food including French fries, hash-brown nuggets and omlettes! Parking places available.

c.
Food Paradise

We are a small family owned restaurant and coffee shop located in the city centre. We offer the biggest variety in authentic Mexican food. All dishes are for very reasonable prices.

d. Coffee Shop «Bella Italia»

Forget expensive luxury Italian restaurants. We offer classic Italian cooking at coffee shop prices. Self-service area and five tables always reserved for nearby companies. Closed Sat-Sun.

е. Cafe Antalya

Popular Turkish cafe on the coast. If you are fed up with the usual tomato and cheese sandwich, try our Adana Kebab, a spicy hot, grilled meat specialty. For a quick snack, sweet syrupy pasties and strong black coffee await you! Good prices and outdoor seating available.

These people want to buy a CD. These are descriptions of some CDs. Decide which CD would be the most suitable for the following people.

1. Peter is an English teacher. He has travelled a lot, and he likes to listen to foreign music, especially from India and other Asian countries. He is quite fond of folk music.

2. Karen is a high school student who enjoys listening to the newest pop songs to practice her English. She likes to sing along with the music while she listens. She especially enjoys listening to music sung in English by groups of attractive young men who can dance.

3. Bob is retired. He likes to listen to music from his youth because it reminds him of when he used to play the piano in a band at university. He doesn’t like music with a lot of singing because it’s difficult to hear the instruments well.

4. Mick is a high school student who plays the violin. He likes listening to well-known orchestras playing classical music and hopes to play in one of them some day.

A. The Singer was 111 For lovers of classical music who don’t like opera-style singing, the famous New York City Opera Orchestra has made this unusual CD. Listeners can hear some of the most famous opera melodies of all time with one important difference: there is no singing at all.

B. The Golden Age of Jazz 1960

Here is a great disc for lovers of music from this important year in the history of jazz. There is very little singing on this CD, just lots of fantastic playing by some of the greatest musicians of the time.

C. Get up and Dance

This collection of newly recorded updated versions of pop songs from your parents’ generation will have you singing and dancing all night! Some of these songs are sure to be hits again for the second time.

D.
China and its Music

China is an enormous country with many different languages, traditions and music. Fifteen unusual songs will give you an idea of the variety of traditional music that can be found in this beautiful, interesting country.

E.
Music Video Gold

This CD has thirteen songs from the most popular music videos of this year. The words to all of the songs are also included for your maximum enjoyment. As a special bonus, you can also hear all of the songs without singing if you’d like to sing and pretend you are your favourite pop star!

Read the newspaper advertisements and choose who can live there:

d) a family with child

A separate flat facing the river, on the second floor, central heating, hot water, a bathroom, a big kitchen, a living room with large windows, a bedroom. All the rooms are furnished. The rent is 100 pounds a month.

2
. ______

The Victoria is a large and comfortable hotel in the center of Oxford. There are double rooms and single ones. All the bedrooms have television, telephone and central heating. There are two restaurants, a coffee shop and a bar. The hotel has a lift and a car park.

A separate room on the fifth floor for a single man, with furniture and a bathroom. There is a desk, a sofa, a TV set and a bookcase. The telephone is in the hall. There is no lift. The room is small but warm and cosy. The rent is only 50 pounds a month.

A two-bedroom apartment facing a park on the tenth floor, a big living room, furnished. There is small kitchen with modern equipment. A swimming pool and a laundry are in the basement. The rent is 150 pounds a month.

a. Who else can be real friends?

b. Why do friendships end?

c. What is friendship?

d. What should a friend be like?

1. ____ The famous 4th century philosopher Aristotle once said,

‘Without friends nobody would want to live’. Friendship is indeed universal and one of the most important human emotions. Friendship is important for everybody. According to scientists, people who have lots of friends get ill less often, looking younger and are more willing to work. Children who have lots of friends become more generous and do better at school, while old people who have lots of friends age less.

2. _______First of all, a friend must be honest and loyal. Then they

must be able to listen and participate, not only in their friend’s joy, but in their suffering, too. Also, they must have the same interests and opinions as their friends. Friends are the important part of your life. And the best friend must keep secret and you can rely on him or her. Usually real friendship becomes stronger with age.

3. _______A friendship can end for many different reasons. One im

portant reason is trust. If you tell a secret to your friend and they don’t keep it, you might fall out and the friendship could end. Jealousy and envy are other causes. In fact, a jealous or envious friend is not a real friend!

4. ________Animals can be great friends. For many people the com

panionship of a dog or a cat is very important. There is even a therapy‘Pet Therapy’, that uses contact with animals to help people with physical and psychological problems.

Read the text and give the title to the parts of the text:

a. the problems of driving

b. the second capital

c. traffic in the city

d. business centre

e. cultural centre

1. ____Everyone knows something about New York- the Statue

of Liberty, the skyscrapers, the beautiful shops on Fifth Avenue, and many theatres of Broadway. This is America’s cultural capital, and her biggest city, with a population of nearly eight million. In the summer it is hot and in winter it can be very cold, but there are hundreds of things to do and see all the year round.

2. ____There are five parts in New York: Brooklyn, the Bronx, Manhattan, Queens and Richmond. Only one of them, the Bronx, is not on an island. Manhattan, the smallest island in New York, is the real centre of the city. When people say ‘New York City’ they usually mean Manhattan. Most of the interesting shops, buildings and museums are here, and Manhattan is the scene of New York’s busy night life.

3. ____Wall Street in Manhattan is the financial heart of the USA

and the most important banking centre in the world. It is a street of skyscrapers. Five million people work here every day.

4. _____Like every big city, New York has its own traffic system.

Traffic jams can be terrible, and it’s usually quickest to go by subway. It goes to almost every corner of Manhattan. But be careful at night, it’s better not to go by subway. There are more than 30,000 taxis in New York. They are easy to see because they are bright yellow.

5. If you really have to drive in New York, remember that

nearly all the east-west streets and most of the north-south streets are one way only. This can be difficult for the visitor who doesn’t know his way. Try to get a map that shows the directions of the traffic, and good luck!

The people are planning to take up a new activity. Decide which class would be the most suitable for them.
There are descriptions of six classes.

1. Susan is a waitress and works a lot of hours at different times of the day and evening. She’d like to be able to do something creative in her own time.

2. Peter works with computers and feels he needs to do something that will keep him fit. He isn’t sure what to do so he’d like to be able to try an activity before making a final decision.

3. Robert wants to take up an activity that will give him plenty of contact with other people. He is confident and enjoys performing.

4. Hannah has a busy and stressful job and wants to find a way of relaxing that she can also do at home. She wants to look better and feel better.

A.
Art Scene

You don’t have to be Picasso to learn to draw and paint in a friendly and relaxing atmosphere. Our evening course includes trips to art galleries and visits by local artists.

B.
Pen to Paper

To help you become a first-class writer, we offer you a home-study course. We have excellent tutors who will guide you through the course and show you how to make the most of your ability. Write and study when and where you want. It couldn’t be easier.

C. Mind and Body

Try yoga to help you deal with life’s worries! It can also help improve the way you look and develop concentration. Best of all, once you’ve learned the basics, it’s something you can do anywhere.

D.
Salsa for Beginners

Dancing is great exercise! Find out if it’s for you with our free ‘Salsa for Beginners’. Spend an hour having fun in a lively class. We’re sure you’ll want to book straight onto one of our courses after that!

E.
What’s cooking?

Would you like to create fantastic meals and dinner parties for your friends, or do you simply have trouble making an omelette? If the answer is ‘yes’ to either of these questions, why not try one of our Friday evening cooking classes? You’ll always have ideas for the weekend!

F.
On Stage

If you’d like something new and interesting to do, why not join the Talking Theatre Group? We work hard but we have a lot of fun too! We put on two shows a year for local people, which are always very popular!

Put the parts of the text into right order

A.
This modern festival started in California in the United States in the 1960s because some black people wanted to celebrate their original history and culture in their new country. Some Africans in the USA, especially those living in white areas, want their children to value their African-American history. Kwanzaa is not a religious festival, but a festival that celebrates several important ideas and principles like unity, cooperation and creativity, for example.

B.
As Kwanzaa becomes popular, it is also becoming more commercialized. There are now Kwanzaa cards, books on Kwanzaa, poetry and recipes. Parents are buying more expensive gifts for their children. Now there is also ’Nia Umoja’ a kind old man, rather like Father Christmas,

who attracts children to the festival. Kwanzaa is an interesting balance of African and modern American influence.

C. Kwanzaa is a modern festival celebrated by African Americans. It comes from traditional African agricultural festivals. In fact, the name ‘Kwanzaa’ comes from the Swahili word for the first fruit. African Americans also use a Swahili greeting, ‘What’s new?’ during their festival of Kwanzaa.

D.
The festival lasts for seven days, from December 26. People light candles, give gifts, and talk about one special principle every day, on each day. On each night there is a dance, and on the final night there is a big feast.

Put the parts of the text into right order.

Meals in Britain

A.
‘Tea means two things. It is a drink and a meal! Some people have afternoon tea, with sandwiches, cakes, and, of course, a cup of tea. Cream teas are popular. You have scones (a kind of cake) with cream and jam.

B.
A traditional English breakfast is a very big meal — sausages, bacon, eggs, tomatoes, mushrooms… But nowadays many people just have cereal with milk and sugar or toast with marmalade, jam or honey.

Marmalade and jam are not the same. Marmalade is made from oranges and jam is made from other fruit. The traditional breakfast drink is tea, which people have with cold milk. Some people have coffee, often instant coffee, which is made with hot water. Many visitors to Britain find this coffee disgusting.

C. British like food from other countries too, especially Italian, French, Chinese, and Indian. People often get take-away meals. You buy the food at the restaurant and then bring it home to eat. Eating in Britain is quite international.

D.
On Sundays many families have a traditional lunch. They have roast meat, either beef, lamb, chicken or pork, with potatoes, vegetables and gravy. Gravy is a sauce made from the meat juices.

E.
For many people lunch is a quick meal. In cities there are a lot of sandwich bars, where office workers can choose the kind of bread they want — brown, white or a roll — and then all sorts of salad and meat or fish to go in the sandwich. Pubs often serve good, cheap food, both hot and cold. School children can have a hot meal at school, but many just take a snack from home.

F.
The evening meal is the main meal of the day for many people. They usually have it quite early, between 6 and 8 p.m., and often the whole family eats together.

    По­ни­ма­ние структурно-смысловых свя­зей в тексте

Fire Crews Hunt Escaped Hamster

Eight firefighters have been called in to help find an escaped hamster. Two crews used a chocolate-covered camera and a vacuum cleaner A
____ , called Fudgie, at the home of a six-year-old girl in Dunbar, Scotland.

The girl’s mother said: ‘We came down for breakfast and discovered Fudgie had opened the top lid of her cage and had made her way into the kitchen and we think she has gone В
____ .»

The fire crews spent five hours trying to recover the pet after it ran down a hole in the kitchen floor. But, the hamster still refused С
____ .

In the search for Fudgie, the firefighters took the family cooker and gas pipes apart. They also dropped a mini-camera coated with chocolate under the floorboards. They then hoped to take out the hamster using a vacuum cleaner. Despite all their efforts, they failed to find Fudgie.

In the end, the firefighters put another camera down the hole D
____ , connected to the screen of the family home computer, to see if Fudgie appeared. Besides, the girl and her parents regularly dropped food E
____ .

At last, after eight days the hamster returned to her cage safe and sound. She crawled from the hole in the kitchen floor early in the morning. It was the girl’s father who first found Fudgie F
____ .

The girl said that day it was like Christmas morning for her. Her parents added that they too felt extremely happy when Fudgie had finally returned.

1. through a small hole in the floor

2. through the hole for the hamster

3. and locked the runaway hamster

4. to come out of the hole

5. to look after the pet

6. to try and locate the missing hamster

7. and left it under the floorboards

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If you eat very quickly, it may be enough to increase your risk of being overweight, research suggests.

Osaka University scientists looked at the eating habits of 3,000 people. Just about half of them told researchers that theyA
______ . Compared with those who did not eat quickly, fast-eating men were 84% more likely to be overweight, and women were 100% more likely to В
______ .

Japanese scientists said that there were a number of reasons why eating fast С
______ . They said it could prevent the work of a signalling system which tells your brain to stop eating because your stomach is full. They said: ‘If you eat quickly you basically fill your stomach before the system has a chance to react, so you D
_____ .

The researchers also explained that a mechanism that helps make us fat today, developed with evolution and helped people get more food in the periods when they were short of it. The scientists added that the habit of eating fast could be received from one’s parents genes or E
______ .

They said that, if possible, children should be taught to F
______ , and allowed to stop when they felt full up at mealtimes. ‘The advice of our grandmothers about chewing everything 20 times might be true — if you take a bit more time eating, it could have a positive influence on your weight.

1. just overfill your stomach

2. could be bad for your weight

3. have a habit of eating quickly

4. linked to obesity

5. eat as slowly as possible

6. put on weight

7. learned at a very early age

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Hi-Tech Brings Families Together

Technology is helping families stay in touch like never before, says a report carried out in the US.

Instead of driving people apart, mobile phones and the Internet are A
______ . The research looked at the differences in technology use between families with children and single adults. It found that traditional families have more hi-tech gadgets in their home В
______ . Several mobile phones were found in 89% of families and 66% had a high-speed Internet connection. The research also found that 58% of families have more С
______ .

Many people use their mobile phone to keep in touch and communicate with parents and children. Seventy percent of couples, D
______ , use it every day to chat or say hello. In addition, it was found that 42% of parents contact their children via their mobile every day.

The growing use of mobile phones, computers and the Internet means that families no longer gather round the TV to spend time together. 25% of those who took part in the report said they now spend less time E
______ . Only 58% of 18-29 year olds said they watched TV every day. Instead the research found that 52% of Internet users who live with their families go online F
______ several times a week and 51% of parents browse the web with their children.

Some analysts have worried that new technologies hurt families, but we see that technology allows for new kinds of connectedness built around cell phones and the Internet/ said the report.

1. than any other group

2. watching television

3. in the company of someone else

4. than two computers in the home

5. communicated with their families

6. helping them communicate

7. owning a mobile

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The Power of ‘Hello’

I work at a company where there are hundreds of employees. I know most of them and almost all of them know me. It is all based on one simple principle: I believe every single person deserves to be acknowledged, A
______ .

When I was about 10 years old, I was walking down the street with my mother. She stopped to speak to Mr. Lee. I knew I could see Mr. Lee any time around the neighborhood, В
______ .

After we passed Mr. Lee, my mother said something that has stuck with me from that day until now. She said, ‘You let that be the last time you ever walk by somebody and not open up your mouth to speak, because even a dog can wag its tail С
______ . That phrase sounds simple, but it has been a guidepost for me and the foundation of who I am. I started to see that when I spoke to someone, they spoke back. And that felt good. It is not just something I believe in — D
______ . I believe that every person deserves to feel someone acknowledges their presence, no matter how unimportant they may be.

At work, I always used to say ‘hello’ to the founder of the company and ask him how our business was doing. But I was also speaking to the people in the cafe, and asked how their children were doing. I remembered after a few years of passing by the founder, I had the courage to ask him for a meeting. We had a great talk.

At a certain point, I asked him E
______ . He said, ‘If you want to, you can get all the way to this seat.’ I have become vice president, but that has not changed the way I approach people. I speak to everyone I see, no matter where I am. I have learned that speaking to people creates a pathway into their world, F
______ .

1. it has become a way of life.

2. when it passes you on the street.

3. when you see him and talk to him.

4. and it lets them come into mine, too.

5. so I did not pay any attention to him.

6. however small or simple the greeting is.

7. how far he thought I could go in his company.

Про­чи­тай­те текст и за­пол­ни­те про­пус­ки A–F ча­стя­ми пред­ло­же­ний, обо­зна­чен­ны­ми циф­ра­ми 1–7. Одна из ча­стей в спис­ке 1–7 — лиш­няя. За­не­си­те цифры, обо­зна­ча­ю­щие со­от­вет­ству­ю­щие части пред­ло­же­ний, в таб­ли­цу.

Friendship and Love

A strong friendship takes a significant amount of time to develop. It will not just magically mature overnight. A friendship involves committing oneself to help another person A
______ . I believe that, nothing can replace a true friend, not material objects, or money, and definitely not a boy.

I met this guy a couple summers ago who I ended up spending almost all of my free time with. His parents did not approve of our dating because of our age difference, В
______ . He had told me the day we met that he had joined the air force and would leave for overseas that coming October. After three months had past, the time came when he had to leave. This left me feeling completely alone.

I turned to my friends for support, but to my surprise, С
______ . I had spent so much time with this guy and so little time with them, that they did not feel sorry for me when he left. For so long they had become the only constant in my life, and I had taken them for granted over something D
______ .When my boyfriend came back, our relationship changed. I tried to fix all the aspects in my life that had gone so wrong in the previous six months.

This experience taught me that true friendships will only survive if one puts forth effort to make them last. Keeping friends close will guarantee that E
______ . When a relationship falls apart, a friend will always do everything in their power to make everything less painful. As for me, I try to keep my friends as close as I can. I know they will always support me in whatever I do, and to them, I F
______ .

1. but we did anyway.

2. whenever a need arises.

3. they did not really care.

4. whenever they need your help.

5. could not guarantee would even last.

6. am eternally grateful»for a second chance.

7. someone will always have a shoulder to cry

    Пол­ное понимание ин­фор­ма­ции в тексте

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Why did schoolchildren like the new teacher, Mr. Sampson?

1) They liked his appearance.

2) He often went for a walk with them.

3) He organized competitions for them.

4) They enjoyed listening to his stories.

A School Story

It happened at my private school thirty odd years ago, and I still can’t explain it. I came to that school in September and among the boys who arrived on the same day was one whom I took to. I will call him McLeod. The school was a large one: there must have been from 120 to 130 boys there as a rule, and so a considerable staff of masters was required. One term a new master made his appearance. His name was Sampson. He was a tall, well-built, pale, black-bearded man. I think we liked him. He had travelled a good deal, and had stories which amused us on our school walks, so that there was some competition among us to get a chance to listen to him.

Well, the first odd thing that happened was this. Sampson was doing Latin grammar with us. One of his favourite methods was to make us construct sentences out of our own heads to illustrate the rules he was trying to teach us. Now, on this occasion he ordered us each to make a sentence bringing in the verb memlnij ‘I remember.’ Well, most of us made up some ordinary sentence such as ‘I remember my father, ’ but the boy I mentioned — McLeod — was evidently thinking of something more interesting than that. Finally, very quickly he wrote a couple of lines on his paper, and showed it up with the rest. The phrase was “Remember the lake among the four oaks.” Later McLeod told me that it had just come into his head. When Sampson read it he got up and went to the man- tel-piece and stopped quite a long time without saying anything looking really embarrassed. Then he wanted to know why McLeod had put it down, and where his family lived, and if there was such a lake there, and things like that.

There was one other incident of the same kind. We were told to make a conditional sentence, expressing a future consequence. We did it and showed up our bits of paper, and Sampson began looking through them. All at once he got up, made some odd sort of noise in his throat, and rushed out. I noticed that he hadn’t taken any of the papers with him, so we went to look at them on his desk. The top paper on the desk was written in red ink — which no one used — and it wasn’t in anyone’s handwriting who was in the class. I questioned everyone myself! Then I thought of counting the bits of paper: there were seventeen of them on the desk, and sixteen boys in the form. I put the extra paper in my bag and kept it. The phrase on it was simple and harmless enough: ‘If you don’t come to me, I’ll come to you.’ That same afternoon I took it out of my bag — I know for certain it was the same bit of paper, for I made a fingermark on it — and there was no single piece of writing on it!

The next day Sampson was in school again, much as usual. That night the third and last incident in my story happened. We — McLeod and I — slept in a bedroom the windows of which looked out at the main building of the school. Sampson slept in the main building on the first floor. At an hour which I can’t remember exactly, but some time between one and two, I was woken up by somebody shaking me. I saw McLeod in the light of the moon which was looking right into our windows. ‘Come,’ he said, — ‘come, there’s someone getting in through Sampson’s window. About five minutes before I woke you, I found myself looking out of this window here, and there was a man sitting on Sampson’s window-sill, and looking in.’ ‘What sort of man? Is anyone from the senior class going to play a trick on him? Or was it a burglar?!’ McLeod seemed unwilling to answer. ‘I don’t know,’ he said, ‘but I can tell you one thing — he was as thin as a rail, and water was running down his hair and clothing and/ he said, looking round and whispering as if he hardly liked to hear himself, ‘I’m not at all sure that he was alive.’ Naturally I came and looked, and naturally there was no one there.

And next day Mr. Sampson was gone: not to be found, and I believe no trace of him has ever come to light since. Neither McLeod nor I ever mentioned what we had seen to anyone. We seemed unable to speak about it. We both felt strange horror which neither could explain.

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The first time Sally travelled by train was when she

1) had to move to her aunt Alice.

2) had a summer vacation at school.

3) went to Pittsburgh for the first time in her life.

4) visited her aunt Alice together with aunt Winnie.

First Train Trip

I must have been about eight when I made my first train trip. I think I was in second grade at that time. It was midsummer, hot and wet in central Kansas, and time for my aunt Winnie’s annual vacation from the store, where she worked as a clerk six days a week. She invited me to join her on a trip to Pittsburgh, fifty miles away, to see her sister, my aunt Alice. ‘Sally, would you like to go there by train or by car?’ aunt Winnie asked. ‘Oh, please, by train, aunt Winnie, dear! We’ve been there by car three times already!’

Alice was one of my favourite relatives and I was delighted to be invited to her house. As I was the youngest niece in Mother’s big family, the aunties all tended to spoil me and Alice was no exception. She kept a boarding house for college students, a two-storey, brown brick building with comfortable, nicely decorated rooms at the corner of 1200 Kearney Avenue. She was also a world-class cook, which kept her boarding house full of young people. It seemed to me that their life was so exciting and joyful.

Since I’d never ridden a train before, I became more and more excited as the magic day drew near. I kept questioning Mother about train travel, but she just said, ‘Wait. You’ll see.’ For an eight-year-old, waiting was really difficult, but finally the big day arrived. Mother had helped me pack the night before, and my little suitcase was full with summer sundresses, shorts and blouses, underwear and pyjamas. I was reading Billy Whiskers, a fantastic story about a goat that once made a train trip to New York, and I had put that in as well. It was almost midnight when I could go to bed at last.

We arrived at the station early, purchased our tickets and found our car. I was fascinated by the face-to-face seats so some passengers could ride backwards. Why would anyone, I thought, want to see where they’d been? I only wanted to see what lay ahead for me.

Finally, the conductor shouted, ‘All aboard!’ to the people on the platform. They climbed into the cars, the engineer blew the whistle and clanged the bell, and we pulled out of the station.

This train stopped at every town between my home in Solomon and Pittsburgh. It was known as the ‘milk train’ because at one time it had delivered goods as well as passengers to these villages. I looked eagerly at the signs at each station. I’d been through all these towns by car, but this was different. The shaky ride of the coaches, the soft brown plush seats, the smells of the engine drifting back down the track and in through the open windows made this trip far more exotic.

The conductor, with his black uniform and shiny hat, the twinkling signals that told the engineer when to stop and go, thrilled me. To an adult, the trip must have seemed painfully slow, but I enjoyed every minute.

Aunt Winnie had packed a lunch for us to eat along the way as there was no dining car in the train. I was dying to know just what was in that big shopping bag she carried, but she, too, said, ‘Wait. You’ll see.’ Midway, Aunt Winnie pulled down her shopping bag from the luggage rack above our seats. My eyes widened as she opened it and began to take out its contents. I had expected lunch- meat sandwiches, but instead there was a container of fried chicken, two hardboiled eggs, bread and butter wrapped in waxed paper, crisp radishes and slim green onions from Winnie’s garden, as well as rosy sliced tomatoes. She had brought paper plates, paper cups and some of the ‘everyday’ silverware. A large bottle of cold tea was well wrapped in a dishtowel; the ice had melted, but it was still chilly. I cautiously balanced my plate on my knees and ate, wiping my lips and fingers with a large paper napkin. This was living!

When we had cleaned our plates, Aunt Winnie looked into the bag one more time. The best treat of all appeared — homemade chocolate cakes! Another cup of cold tea washed these down and then we carefully returned the remains of the food and silverware to the bag, which Aunt Winnie put into the corner by her feet.

‘Almost there,’ said my aunt, looking out of the window at the scenery passing by. And sure enough, as we pulled into the Pittsburgh station we immediately caught sight of aunt Alice, waiting for us, a smile like the sun lighting up her face, arms wide open. We got off the train and she led us past the taxi rank and the bus stop to her car that was parked near the station. And all the way to her home she was asking about my impressions of my first train trip and I could hardly find the words to express all the thrill and excitement that filled me.

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Why is the collage of photographs more important for Kathy than the other wedding presents?

1) It reminds Kathy of her wedding.

2) Kathy didn’t like the other wedding presents.

3) It was the most expensive present.

4) Kathy’s sister made it for her.

‘Dear Kathy! Chance made us sisters, hearts made us friends.’ This quote is at the center of a collage of photographs — covering our twenty-something years — that now hangs in my office. My sister, Susie, made it for me as a wedding present. It probably cost very little to make (she is a starving college student, after all), but it means more to me than any of the more ‘traditional’ wedding presents my husband and I received from family and friends last June. Whenever I look at the collage, it reminds me of my sister and what a true friend she is.

Susie and I weren’t always close friends. Far from it, in fact. We shared a room for nearly fifteen years when we were younger, and at the time I thought I couldn’t have asked for a worse roommate. She was always around! If we argued and I wanted to go to my room to be alone, she’d follow me right in. If I told her to go away, she’d say right back, ‘It’s my room, too! And I can be here if I want to.’ I’d consult my mother and she usually agreed with Susie. I suppose being three years younger has its benefits.

When we were kids, she’d ‘borrow’ my dolls without asking. (And no toy was safe in her hands.) When we got older, Susie quit borrowing my toys and started borrowing my clothes. That was the final straw. I couldn’t take it anymore. I begged my parents to let me have a room of my own — preferably one with a lock on the door. The answer was always a resounding ‘no.’ ‘Please?!’ I’d beg. My parents would just shake their heads. They didn’t agree with each other on much, but for some reason they had a united front on this issue.

To crown it all, she had this habit of doing everything I did. Choirs, rock bands, sports teams, dance studios: There was no place where I was safe. ‘She looks up to you,’ my mom would say. I didn’t care. I just wanted a piece of my life that didn’t involve my little sister. When I complained to my mother, she’d just smile and say, ‘One day you’ll want her around.’ Sure.

It’s strange how mothers have this habit of being right about everything. When I was sixteen and my sister was thirteen, we went through a series of life-chang- ing events together that would forever change our relationship. First, my parents announced that they were divorcing. My dad packed up and moved to an apartment in New Hampshire — more than a half hour drive away from our cozy house in Massachusetts. He bought me my first car and I often went with Susie to his place when we missed him a lot. During those trips we started discussing our troubles and making plans about how to reunite the family again. But a year later, our father met his future second wife and moved again; this time to Indiana. This meant we could only see him once or twice a year, as opposed to once every few weeks. That was hard.

Yet those few months changed my relationship with my sister forever. We started having more heart-to-heart talks as opposed to silly fights. Over time, she became my most cherished friend. It’s not uncommon for us to have three-hour-long telephone conversations about everything or about nothing-just laughing over memories from childhood or high school.

She’s the only person who’s been through all of the tough stuff that I’ve been through, and the only person who truly understands me. Susie and I have shared so much. She’s been my roommate, my friend, and my partner in crime. We’ve done plays together, gone to amusement parks, sang, and taken long road trips together. We’ve laughed until our sides hurt, and wiped away each others’ tears.

Even though distance separates us now, we’re closer than ever. Sisters share a special bond. They’ve seen all of your most embarrassing moments. They know your deepest, darkest secrets. Most importantly, they love you unconditionally. I’m lucky to be able to say that my little sister is my best friend. I only wish everyone could be so fortunate.

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While he was a teenager, he married a woman some years older than himself. He had three children: the eldest is the daughter and then twins – a son and another girl. In 1587 William went to work in London leaving his family at home. Some people say that the reason was his love of poetry and theatre.

    Write down the words and phrases used in the text

    1. worker, farmer 3. 2 children, 3 children

      listening, reading 4. cinema, theatre

    Complete the sentences according to the text

a) on April 22 b) on April 23 c) on August 23

a) a glove-maker b) a clock-maker c) a shoe-maker

3. At school William learned to love…

a) dancing b) reading c) singing

a) New York b) Cardiff c) London

    Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false

    1. The Globe Theatre was built on the bank of the river Clyde.

    Answer the questions on the text

    Put the sentences in the order they are used in the text

    1. Most of his plays were staged in the Globe Theatre.

      He married a woman some years older than himself.

      William had quite a good education.

      He stopped writing and went to live in Stratford.

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A
Sad Story

Three men came to New York for their holidays. Their names were Tom, Pete and Andy. They came to a hotel and asked for a room. The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.

They went sightseeing, visited the picture gallery and looked into some shops. In the evening they came back to the hotel from the cinema.

The servant in the hotel told them: “ I’m sorry, gentlemen, the lift doesn’t work. If you don’t want to go up to your room, you can sleep here, in the hall. I’ll bring you the bed linen.”

“ No, no”, said the men, “ we shan’t sleep in the hall. We shall go up to our room.” Then Tom said to his friends:” It’s not easy to go up to the forty-fifth floor. I know what we shall do. I shall tell you a lot of jokes. Andy will sing us songs and Pete will tell us an interesting story”.

The three friends went up to their room. They listened to Tom’s jokes, then Andy sang songs. When they came to the thirty-fifth floor, Tom said to Pete: “ Now we shall listen to your long and interesting story.”

“ Yes”, answered Pete, “but my story is short and very sad. I have no key with me. It is on the table in the hall.”

Reading- Comprehension Test

№2

I. Choose the phrases which were used in the text

1. three men, four men 3. Theatre, cinema

2. New York, London 4. Funny stories, jokes

II. Choose the sentences which were used in the text

1. A)The friends got a room on the thirty-fifth floor.

B) The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.

2 A) They looked into some shops.

B) They looked into some supermarkets.

3. A) We shall go up to our room.

B) We shall sleep in the hall.

4. A) Andy told interesting stories.

B) Andy sang songs.

III. Complete the sentences according to the text

    Three men came to…

    The friends got a room on the…

    Pete has left the key…

IV. Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false

1. Three men came to a restaurant.

2. Three men visited a picture gallery.

3. They came back from the cinema in the afternoon.

4. Pete will sing songs.

V. Answer the questions on the text

1. Where did three men come to?

2. Why did they go up to their room on foot?

3. Who told jokes?

4. What was Peter’s story?

Summer time is a time for festival in Britain. Join us as we go to three fabulous festivals.

Notting Hill Carnival

The Notting Hill Carnival takes place in the Notting Hill area of London on the last weekend in August. It is a huge multicultural artsfestival and is the largest street festival in Europe. Groups come from all over the world to take part. There’s music, dancing, street theatre and decorated floats. Up to 1.5 million people come to the festival and there’s something for everyone to see and do.

Glastonbury Festival

It’s the world’s biggest open air music festival. The festival covers 1,000 acres of farmland in south-west England. It takes place in June and lasts four days. About 700 acts are played on over 80 stages. There is continual music from 9 o’clock in the morning until 6 o’clock the next morning. Last year 190,000 people attended the festival and paid 200 for a ticket. Hundreds of famous names have performed at Glastonbury. It also supports charities such as Greenpeace, WaterAid
and others. The festival is famous for its rain! In 1997,1998 and 2005 it rained, every day, and the festival-goers danced in the mud.

Eisteddford

Eisteddfod, a celebration of Welsh music and poetry, is the biggest cultural event in Wales and it takes place in the first week of August. There are competitions for all the best singers, choirs and poets. The Gorsedd of the Bards,
an association of the best poets, writers, musicians and artists in Wales, selects the winners. The members of the Gorsedd are called druids and they wear long colourful robes. All the events are in Welsh, but there are headphones with English language translations for anyone who doesn’t understand Welsh!

1. Where does the Notting Hill Carnival take place?

a. in suburbs of London

b. in one of the parts of London

c. in the centre of London

2. Who usually attends this festival?

a. only Londoners

b. British people

c. different people

3. When does Glastonbury host its music event?

a. at the beginning of summer

b. in the middle of summer

c. at the end of summer

4.
What does this festival support?

a. some handicrafts

b. environmental projects

c. foreign people

5.
What is Eisteddfod?

a. it’s only a music festival

b. it’s a folk festival

c. it’s a poetry competition

6. In what language are the events at Eisteddfod?

Niagara Falls is located between Southern Ontario (Canada) and New York State (USA). The first inhabitants who settled in the Niagara Falls region were the Iroquois. They worked as farmers and trades along the banks of the Niagara River. When the first Europeans set foot in the area, they also settled there. The 19th century brought the most important developments to the area. The Village of Manchester (Niagara Falls) became an important centre for manufacturing companies during the early years of the industrial development. Tourists started to arrive in the 1820s and they still visit this after almost two centuries.

The most comfortable way to visit Niagara Falls is a boat trip on the world famous Maid of the Mist. This historical boat tour takes millions of tourists to the Falls from the Canadian to the American side every year. Don’t miss two other important attractions: the White Water Walk, an amazing tour through a deep narrow gorge and the Journey Behind the Falls, a self-guided tour which takes you to an observation platform at the base of the Falls in a lift. You can then go on a short journey through some tunnels which lead you behind the Falls.

After a day of exciting adventure, visit Niagara Square with all its shops, cinemas and boutiques. There are lots of restaurants that serve locally grown products and regional cuisine. At night, experience local clubs with live music and entertainment. Don’t forget the fireworks over the Falls every Friday and Sunday!

1. This information is to help tourists who want to spend a holiday in Canada.

2. You can see the Falls only on board a boat.

3. The first people who made their home there were Europeans.

4. You can taste only local food.

5. You can have a fun at night.

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

Many people travelling to Mexico pass through Mexico City, but most of them never actually visit Mexico’s capital city. If you asked those people why, they would probably say something about the air. Mexico City is very big, and air pollution is always a problem in big cities. But a lot of its inhabitants say that air pollution is less of problem than in the past.

The historic centre was built on what used to be an island in an ancient lake. It’s the oldest part of the city and includes the Zocalo, the largest public square in the Americans. There is an enormous Mexican flag in the centre of the square.

The best way to see the most sights in the shortest time is to take the ‘Turibus’, a red, two-level bus similar to the double-decker buses in London, except that the top level has no roof. This means that you see the city better, but it also means that you need to wear lots of sun cream. A daily ticket allows you unlimited rides.

The amazing National Museum of Anthropology is located in the Chapultepec Park. It’s perhaps the most famous of the city’s museums and also one of the biggest. Other sights in the park include an amusement park, a forest with beautiful old trees and a large zoo with giant pandas.

Plaza Garibaldi always has street musicians playing traditional Mexican music. There’s also birria, a spicy goat meat soup sold at self- service restaurants in a large building just off the square.

Let’s go to this exciting, beautiful city.

Read the text below to decide if each sentence is correct (True) or incorrect (False)._____________________________________________

1. Most travelers to Mexico spend a lot of time in Mexico City.

2. Mexico City is the capital of Mexico.

3. Air pollution is a problem in Mexico City.

4. The centre of Mexico City used to be under water.

5. The Zocalo is the biggest public square in the world.

6. The Turibus is an efficient and convenient way to see the major sights.

7. Birria is a type of Mexican music.

True False

Прочитайте текст, ответьте на вопросы после текста

In the 1980s Julian Metcalfe and Sinclair Beecham spent a lot of time walking around London looking for a good, fast lunch. They never found one. So in 1986 they opened their own sandwich shop, Pret a Manger.

Today there are 150 Pret a Mangers in the UK and Hong Kong. Why have they become successful? Firstly, the food. Every night a van delivers fresh ingredients to the Pret a Manger stores. Early in the morning the chefs check the ingredients carefully, and then they make fresh sandwiches for the day. And these days it isn’t only sandwiches. Pret a Manger sells many different types of food; it even includes sushi on the menu. Quality and care is important for the company. For people who want to know exactly what they are eating, its website gives information about each dish. For example, if you want to know how many calories are in a ham and cheese sandwich, you can find out.

Pret a Manger also does good things for the community. At the end of the day, charities take any extra unwanted food and give it to homeless people.

McDonald’s owns 33% of the company, and this is one reason why people all over the world now know this trade name.

1. When did the first Pret a Manger open?

a. 1980 b. 1986 c. 1990

2. How is the food made?

b. by chefs in the sandwich shops every day

c. by chefs the night before

3. What does Pret a Manger sell?

a. only sandwiches

b. only sandwiches and sushi

c. sandwiches, sushi and other types of food

4. How can you find information about the calories in each dish?

a. look on the website

b. ask the Pret a Manger workers

c. write to owners

5. What happens to the food that isn’t eaten?

a. they throw it away

b. it is recycled

c. charities take it

Прочитайте текст, ответьте на вопросы после текста

Going to the Theatre

Many big towns in England have professional theatres now. There are about 200 professional theatres in Great Britain but London is the centre of theatrical activity. There are over thirty important theatres in the West End. The Royal Opera House at Covent Garden is the home of opera and ballet.

Some theatres stage ‘classics’ and serious drama. A lot of English people are fond of light comedy and musicals. They are very popular in England.

The evening performances begin at 7.30 or 8.00 p.m. There is a rush hour at this time in the West End. A lot of people come out of nearby underground stations, taxis and private cars drop theatre-goers outside the entrance to each theatre. There is another rush hour when the performances are over.

It is certainly not easy to book a seat for a good play in London though the seats are not cheap. That is why some people prefer matinees (they start at 1-3 p.m.), but you will never see famous stars in these performances.

Complete the sentences based on the text.

1. There are over 200 professional theatres in Britain but London is

a________________.

2. The Royal Opera House is a_________.

3. A lot of English people are fond of________.

4. There is a rush hour in the West End_______.

5. It is not easy to book a seat for a good play in London, though___.

6. Some people prefer matinees but______.

a. not very serious performances.

b. theatrical center.

c. the tickets are very expensive.

d. after the working day.

e. they can’t see famous actors there.

f. place where you can see ballet and opera performances.

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

The Exercise craze

Old and young, men and women are jogging, dancing, jumping up and down, bending and stretching. Exercise is in fashion. Everybody wants to be fit, feel good, look slim, and stay young.

It started with jogging. Millions of Americans put on their new coloured sports shoes and fashionable jogging suits and ran through the parks or along the streets for half an hour a day. Then the joggers got the marathon craze. Popular marathons are now held everywhere. Lots of people want to see if they can run 42 kms and do it faster than everyone else. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important sporting events. Television cameras and newspapers report them in detail. Some remarkable people take part in the marathons: seventy-five year old grandfathers and nine year old grandchildren, and even disabled in wheelchairs.

But marathons are not for everyone. Some prefer to get fit at home. For them, there ’s a big choice of books, cassettes and video programmers with music and instructions. Sometimes the action is more like dancing than exercises. That’s why one big company calls it ‘Dancercise’.

Taking exercise is only one part of keeping fit. You’ve got to get slim too. Books and magazines about slimming are bestsellers and these days.

Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

1. Everybody is doing excercise, old and young, men and women.___

2. Millions of Americans ran through the parks or along the streets.

3. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important

sporting events.___

4. Everyone takes part in marathons.____

5. People cannot get fit at home.____

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

Most British and American state schools provide their students with the option to eat lunch at school, but do they provide them with the option to eat well? Jamie Oliver is one of Britain’s most popular stars. He’s a young cook whose TV and cookery programmes are watched by

millions. In his last TV series, he tried to make British school dinner both eatable and healthy. He showed just how poor many school diets were. Many of them contained too many fats and carbohydrates and not enough vitamins. His campaign to get tastier and healthier school meals called Feed me better
has caused politicians to take the problem seriously and promise to improve the quality of food on school dinner plates. Obesity is on the increase in all western countries. The biggest causes are bad diet and people being less active than they were in the past. Some people allege that schools also make the problem worse because they allow the sale of fizzy drinks and sugary snacks in school tuck shops and vending machines. Other people believe that advertising is to blame. UK politicians are promoting a voluntary agreement to stop junk food advertising at times when younger children watch the television.

1. Most teens don’t have healthy food at school______

2. Jamie Oliver is a famous school teacher._______

3. J. Oliver’s aim is to change meal at schools.______

4. Teens are getting fatter in western countries._______

5. School canteens don’t serve fast food.______

6. Adverts teach teens to eat fast food.______

Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).

The pack of biscuits

One night there was a woman at the airport who had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight. While she waited she bought a book and a pack of biscuits to spend the time. She looked for a place to sit and waited. She was deep into her book, when suddenly she realized that there was a young man sitting next to her who was stretching his hand, with no concern whatsoever, and grabbing the pack of cookies lying between them. He started to eat them one by one. Not wanting to make a fuss about it she decided to ignore him. The woman, slightly bothered, ate the cookies and watched the clock, while the young and shameless thief of biscuits was also finishing them. The woman started to get really angry at this point and thought, “If I wasn’t such a good and educated person, I would have given this daring man a black eye by now.” Every time she ate a biscuit, he had one too. The dialogue between their eyes continued and when only one biscuit was left, she wondered what was he going to do. Softly and with a nervous smile, the young man grabbed the last biscuit and broke it in two. He offered one half to the woman while he ate the other half. Briskly she took the biscuit and thought, “What an insolent man! How uneducated! He didn’t even thank me!” She had never met anybody so fresh and sighed relieved to hear her flight announced. She grabbed her bags and went towards the boarding gate refusing to look back to where that insolent thief was. After boarding the plane and nicely seated, she looked for her book, which was nearly finished by now. While looking into her bag she was totally surprised to find her pack of biscuits nearly intact. «If my biscuits are here», she thought feeling terribly, «those others were his and he tried to share them with me. Too

late to apologize to the young man». She realized with pain, that it was her who had been insolent, uneducated and a thief, and not him!

Read the story and say if the statements are true (T), false (F) or not mentioned (NM).

1. A young woman at the airport had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight.

2. She bought a book and a pack of cookies.

3. She was reading the book, when suddenly she realized that a young man was eating her biscuits.

4. The woman and the man didn’t want to talk to each other.

5. The man shared the last cookie with the woman.

6. The woman apologized to the young man.

Match the word and the translation.

а. нетронутый

b. осознавать

с. нахальный

e. высокомерный, наглый

f. живо, оживленно

h. суета, шум

Прочитайте текст, ответьте на вопросы после текста

The shoebox

A man and woman had been married for more than 60 years. They had shared everything. They had talked about everything. They had kept no secrets from each other except that the little: old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet that she had cautioned her husband never to open or ask her about.

For all of these years, he had never thought about the box, but one day the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.

In trying to sort out their affairs, the little old man took down the shoebox and took it to his wife’s bedside. She agreed that it was timethat he should know what was in the box. When he opened it, he found two knitted dolls and a stack of money totaling $95,000.

He asked her about the contents.

‘When we were to be married,’ she said, ‘ my grandmother told me the secret of a happy marriage was to never argue. She told me that if I ever got angry with you, I should just keep quiet and knit a doll.’

The little old man was so moved; he had to fight back tears. Only two precious dolls were in the box. She had only been angry with him two times in all those years of living and loving. He almost burst with happiness.

‘Honey,’ he said, ‘that explains the dolls, but what about all of this money? Where did it come from?’

‘Oh,’ she said, ‘that’s the money I made from selling the dolls.’

Answer the questions.____________________

1. How long had a man and a woman been married?

2. Who had a little secret?

3. What kind of secret it was?

4. Why did the man take down the shoebox and take it to his wife’s bedside?

5. What was in the box?

6. What secret did grandmother tell me the woman?

7. Do you think the woman often got angry with her husband? Why?

Список использованной литературы:

    Ваулина Ю., УМК «Spotlight-9»(Ю.Ваулина, В.Эванс),Просвещение, 2010.

    Вербицкая М.В., ЕГЭ-2013. Английский язык: тематические и типовые экзаменационные варианты: 25 вариантов / Под ред. М.В. Вербицкой. — М.: Издательство «Национальное образование», 2012. — + CD. — (ЕГЭ-2013. ФИПИ-школе)

    Вербицкая М.В., ЕГЭ-2013. Английский язык: актив-тренинг: выполнение заданий А, В, С / Под ред. М.В. Вербицкой. — М.: Издательство «Национальное образование», 2012. — (ЕГЭ-2013. ФИПИ-школе)

    Вербицкая М.В., ЕГЭ-2013 Английский язык + CD / ФИПИ автор-составитель: М.В. Вербицкая– М.: Астрель, 2012

    Клековкина Е., Учебное пособие для подготовки к ЕГЭ по английскому языку. Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore Knowles,Елена Клековкина. Macmillan. 2010

    Клековкина Е., Сборник тестов для подготовки к ЕГЭ по англ.яз.E.Klekovkina, Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore-Knowles. Macmillan. 2010

    Соловова Е.Н., Методика обучения иностранным языкам. Базовый курс. Е.Н. Соловова. 2008

    Соловова Е.Н., State Exam.Maximiser. Подготовка к Экзаменам. Е.Н.Соловова,И.Е. Солокова.Longnan. 2007

    Трубанева Н.Н., ГИА-2013 Экзамен в новой форме. Английский язык. 9 класс/ ФИПИ авторы- составители: Трубанева Н.Н., Бабушис Е.Е., Спичко Н.А. — М.: Астрель, 2012

    www.reshuege.ru, сайт «Решу ЕГЭ»

    www.fipi.ru, сайт «Федеральный институт педагогических измерений».

Приложение № 1

Что делать с незнакомыми словами?

Приготовьтесь к тому, что вам будут встречаться незнакомые слова, и это хорошо. Если новых слов вы в книге не обнаружили, значит, вам лучше взять книгу, посложнее уровнем или на другую тему.

Смотреть в словаре желательно только те слова, без значения которых не понятен общий смысл
предложения или отрывок текста. Если же заглядывать в словарь за каждым незнакомым словом, то чтение из удовольствия превратится в пытку.

Читая бумажную книгу с простым карандашом
в руках, подчеркивайте незнакомые слова
. Лишь после прочтения определенного количества страниц выписывайте их в тетрадь, блокнот-словарик
, карточки и смотрите значения в толковом словаре на английском.

Обязательно обратите внимание на примеры употребления в конкретных предложениях и идиомы с этим словом.

Когда Вы выписываете незнакомое слово или идиому, то обязательно записывайте всё предложение
, чтобы запомнить
слово в контексте
.

Определите части речи и члены предложения в нем, чтобы запомнить, какие, слова и в какой последовательности употребляются с тем или иным словом.

Приложение №2

Ключи

2-T 3-F 4-F 5-F 6-T 7-

3 -e 4-a 5 -f 6-b

1 — e 2 — c 3-a 4-h 5-f 6-d 7-g 8-b

1 — c 2 -e 3 — b 4-d 5-a

l-b 2-f 3-a 4-d 5-c 6-e

1 — c 2 -a 3-d 4-b

4 — c 5 — f 6 — e 7

3. an old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet

4. the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.

5. two knitted dolls and $95,000

6. the secret of a happy marriage / She told that if the woman ever got angry with her husband, she should just keep quiet and knit a doll.»

7. Yes, she made $95,000 from selling the dolls.

[Key:
1. easily learned, 2. really valuable, 3. rarely beaten, 4. quickly growing, 5. surprisingly successful, 6. sadly disappearing, 7. extremely dangerous]

[Key:
1. working out, 2. top, 3. basics, 4. online, 5. rapidly, 6. explosion, 7. phenomenon, 8. hit, 9. dominated, 10. got the better of, 11. circles, 12. die out, 13. pastimes, 14. dated from, 15. unique, 16. average]

[Key:
1. got the better of, 2. unique, 3. online, 4. basics, 5. average, 6. hit]

[Key:
1. A, 2. G, 3. F, 4. E, 5. C, 6. D]

[Key:
1. F, 2. B, 3. A, 4. C, 5. G, 6. E, 7 D]

[Key:
a. 4, b. 6, c. 5, d. 2, e. 1, f. 3]

[Key:
1. C, 2. B, 3. G, 4. E, 5. A, 6. D]

Экзамен ЕГЭ проверяет:

  • грамматические навыки базового уровня;
  • навыки словообразования;
  • лексический запас.

Как подготовиться к лексико-грамматической части ЕГЭ?

  • решить как можно больше упражнений по грамматике
    ;
  • вспомнить
    или освоить навык
    словообразования;
  • пройти тестовые варианты ЕГЭ
    и понять, где именно встречаются ошибки, над которыми нужно работать.

Прочитайте приведенные ниже тексты. Преобразуйте, если необходимо, слова, чтобы они грамматически соответствовали содержанию текстов. Заполните пропуски полученными словами.

Для того чтобы понять, в какой форме необходимо использовать глагол be
, нужно посмотреть на предложение с пропуском. Так, это предложение написано в прошедшем времени (phoned
). Соответственно, нам нужно поставить глагол be в Past
Simple
в отрицании. Для местоимения she
эта форма — wasn’
t
.

Глагол build
строить
») — неправильный. Его вторая и третья формы — built, built. В данном предложении важно понять, стена ли кого-то строила или ее строили. Логично, что строили стену. Это значит, что здесь необходимо употребить пассивный залог во времени Past
Simple
. Таким образом, правильным ответом будет was
built
, так как пассивный залог (Passive
Voice
) — это глагол be
в нужной форме (в зависимости от времени) и третья форма смыслового глагола (Participle
II/
V 3
).

Глагол become
становиться
») — неправильный. Его вторая и третья формы — became, become. Для того чтобы понять, какую форму этого глагола необходимо использовать в данном предложении, нужно выяснить, нет ли в предложении «сигнальных» слов. Такое слово есть — since
, и оно указывает на Present
Perfect
. Правильным ответом будет форма has become
.

Слово nature
природа
») является существительным
. После пропуска также стоит существительное — beauty
красота
»), то есть на месте пропуска должно стоять некое определение. Роль определения в предложении обычно играет прилагательное, и от слова nature
прилагательным
будет natural
.

Most of the land in National Parks is privately owned, but administered by an independent National Park Authority which works to balance the expectations of __________ with the need to conserve these open spaces for future generations.

visit

Слово visit
посещать
») — это глагол
. Посмотрев на слова перед пропуском — the
expectations
of
ожидания кого-то/чего-то
») — можно понять, что нам необходимо существительное — «ожидания посетителей

» (visitors
). На то, что существительное
должно стоять во множественном числе
, указывает отсутствие неопределенного артикля перед пропуском.

В данном предложении пропущено подлежащее, то есть из существительного science
наука
») необходимо образовать другое существительное, способное исполнить роль этого подлежащего. Более того, новое существительное должно стоять во множественном числе
, так как в сказуемое входит глагол be в форме множественного числа — are
. Новым существительным
будет слово scientists
— «ученые
».

  • строго следуйте инструкции
    и внимательно читайте задание
    ;
  • прежде чем заполнить пропуск, внимательно прочитайте предложение и найдите «сигнальные» слова
    , которые подскажут вам, в какое время необходимо поставить глагол или какая часть речи требуется;
  • не оставляйте пропуски незаполненными
    , даже если вы не знаете правильный ответ;
  • пишите четко
    и аккуратно
    .

Список литературы

  1. Афанасьева О.В., Дули Д., Михеева И.В. Английский язык (базовый уровень). — Просвещение, 2012.
  2. Биболетова М.З., Бабушис Е.Е., Снежко Н.Д. Английский язык (базовый уровень). — Титул, 2009.
  3. Кауфман К.И., Кауфман М.Ю. Английский язык (базовый уровень). — Титул, 2010.
  4. Музланова Е.С. 120 учебно-тренировочных заданий для подготовки к ЕГЭ. — АСТ, 2010.
  1. Correctenglish.ru ().
  2. Interactive-english.ru ().
  3. Begin-english.ru ().

Домашнее
задание

  1. Test 1 Елена Музланова, Елена Кисунько Английский язык: Экспресс-репетитор для подготовки к ЕГЭ: «Грамматика и лексика». — Астрель, 2010. — С. 6.
  2. Test 6 Елена Музланова, Елена Кисунько Английский язык: Экспресс-репетитор для подготовки к ЕГЭ: «Грамматика и лексика». — Астрель, 2010. — С. 9.
  3. Test 3 Елена Музланова, Елена Кисунько Английский язык: Экспресс-репетитор для подготовки к ЕГЭ: «Грамматика и лексика». — Астрель, 2010. — С. 28.

Все чаще в нашу школу обращаются родители школьников с просьбой подготовить будущих выпускников к ЕГЭ по английскому языку 2018. Поэтому мы решили написать подробную статью, в которой расскажем, как готовиться к этому экзамену: рассмотрим его структуру и приведем практические советы для успешной сдачи каждой части ЕГЭ, а также представим лучшие учебники и онлайн-ресурсы для подготовки к этому непростому испытанию.

Что представляет собой ЕГЭ по английскому языку 2018

ЕГЭ по английскому языку 2018 — это выпускной экзамен в школе, который засчитывается в качестве вступительного экзамена в вуз, поэтому так важно сдать его на высокий балл. Пока этот экзамен не является обязательным, но если выпускник собирается поступать в профильный вуз, ему нужно пройти это испытание.

По структуре и уровню сложности ЕГЭ похож на международный экзамен FCE. Это значит, что для успешной сдачи ученик должен иметь уровень (выше среднего). Это высокая ступень, поэтому мы рекомендуем начинать готовиться к ЕГЭ по английскому уже с 10 класса, тогда за 2 года школьник сможет в нормальном темпе освоить весь необходимый объем материала.

В принципе, можно подготовиться к сдаче экзамена и за 1 год, но только в том случае, если на момент начала подготовки ученик уже владеет английским на уровне (средний). Не знаете, каким уровнем обладает выпускник? Тогда предложите ему пройти .

Как же проходит ЕГЭ по английскому языку в 2018 году? Экзамен состоит из письменной и устной частей, которые проводятся в разные дни. В один день школьники сдают письменную часть, она включает такие разделы: аудирование, чтение, письмо, грамматика и лексика. Всего в этот день выпускнику нужно выполнить 40 заданий за 180 минут. Ученик может получить максимум 20 баллов за каждый из разделов. Таким образом, за этот день можно набрать 80 баллов.

Вторая часть — устная — проходит в другой день и сдается по желанию
. Она длится всего 15 минут и состоит из 4 заданий. В этот день выпускник может заработать еще 20 баллов. Мы настоятельно советуем всем выпускникам обязательно сдавать устную часть: в случае неудачных ответов вы ничего не теряете, а в случае удачных
заработаете дополнительные баллы
.

Таким образом, выпускник на экзамене может набрать максимум 100 баллов. Минимальный балл для сдачи экзамена составляет 22 балла.

Ниже мы представим таблицу перевода баллов ЕГЭ по английскому в пятибалльную систему.

Результаты ЕГЭ обычно публикуются через 14 дней после сдачи второй части экзамена, но в некоторых случаях они известны уже через 12 дней. Узнать свои результаты можно на официальном сайте ЕГЭ , заполнив все необходимые поля. Бумажные сертификаты ЕГЭ отменили в 2014 году, поэтому теперь доступны только электронные сертификаты.

Структура ЕГЭ по английскому языку 2018 и принципы успешной сдачи каждой части

В этой главе мы подробно расскажем вам о том, какие задания предстоит выполнить выпускнику в каждой из частей экзамена. Кроме того, мы приведем советы от наших преподавателей, которые готовят школьников к сдаче ЕГЭ. Кстати, если вы ищете учителя, который подготовит вашего ребенка к экзамену, обратите внимание на . Они занимаются этим уже не первый год и выработали свою стратегию успешной подготовки, знают, какие подводные камни ждут на экзамене, какие типичные ошибки допускают школьники и как избавиться от этих ошибок.

В качестве примера мы представим вам демонстрационный вариант ЕГЭ по английскому, предоставленный официальным сайтом Федерального института педагогических измерений fipi.ru .

Аудирование

Аудирование длится 30 минут и состоит из трех частей. Первые две части — это первое и второе задание соответственно, а третья часть — это задания №3-9 (из общего списка 40 заданий).

Аудирование на ЕГЭ по английскому в 2018 году включает в себя 3 аудиофрагмента, объединенных в одну запись. Экзаменаторы включают запись и не останавливают ее до самого конца, однако между фрагментами есть паузы для чтения заданий и переноса ответов в бланк. За каждый верный ответ в этой и остальных частях экзамена ученик получает по 1 баллу. Давайте посмотрим, что выпускнику предстоит делать на аудировании.

Задание 1:
Дано 7 утверждений. Ученик слушает 6 высказываний и соотносит их с утверждениями, одно из которых лишнее.

6 баллов.

Пример:

Аудирование, задание 1

Задание 2:
Дано 7 утверждений. Школьник слушает диалог и определяет, какие утверждения соответствуют содержанию диалога (True), какие не соответствуют (False), а какие не упоминаются в нем (Not Stated).

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Аудирование, задание 2

Задание 3:
Дано 7 вопросов, к каждому из них предлагается по 3 варианта ответа. Ученик слушает аудиозапись и подбирает верный ответ к каждому вопросу.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Аудирование, задание 3

Наши советы:

  1. При подготовке к экзамену нужно выполнять как можно больше заданий на аудирование именно в экзаменационном формате
    . Так выпускник привыкнет быстро читать задания и улавливать в речи ключевые слова, которые помогут найти верный ответ.
  2. При выборе ответа нужно опираться не на упоминаемые в речи диктора слова, а на смысл его слов. Так, например, в своей речи он может тем или иным образом упоминать все ответы к заданию, но если вникнуть в сказанное, то можно понять, что правильный ответ всего один.

Чтение

Чтение длится 30 минут и состоит из 3 частей (9 заданий). На каждую часть мы советуем тратить не более 10 минут, чтобы уложиться в отведенные полчаса.

Задание 1:
Дано 7 коротких текстов (3-6 предложений в каждом) и 8 заголовков. Нужно прочитать тексты и подобрать к каждому из них соответствующий заголовок. При этом 1 заголовок будет лишним.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Чтение, задание 1

Задание 2:
Дан текст, в котором есть 6 пропусков. Ниже дано 7 отрывков, 6 из которых необходимо вставить на место пропусков.

Максимальное количество баллов:
6 баллов.

Пример:

Чтение, задание 2

Задание 3:
Дан небольшой текст и 7 вопросов к нему. К каждому вопросу есть 4 варианта ответа, из которых нужно выбрать 1 правильный.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Чтение, задание 3

Наши советы:

  1. При выполнении первого задания нужно искать ключевые слова, которые укажут на смысл текста и помогут найти нужный заголовок. Кроме того, часто основной смысл абзаца отражается в первом предложении, а в остальных даются какие-то мелкие детали. Поэтому в некоторых случаях нужно просто внимательно прочитать первое предложение, чтобы правильно выполнить задание.
  2. Чтобы успешно выполнить второе задание, необходимо хорошо разбираться в том, как строятся в английском сложные предложения. Дело в том, что пропущенная часть в большинстве случаев — это часть сложносочиненного или сложноподчиненного предложения. Например, если школьник понимает, что в придаточном предложении who используется в отношении людей, which — предметов, а where — мест, он успешно сможет выполнить бо́льшую часть заданий. Также нужно повторить, например, что инфинитив используется для выражения цели.
  3. В третьем задании вопросы располагаются в том порядке, в котором к ним даются ответы в тексте. То есть ответ на первый вопрос будет в начале текста, а не в середине или конце, ответ на второй вопрос — после ответа на первый и т. д.

Грамматика и лексика

Этот раздел ЕГЭ по английскому 2018 года проверяет знания грамматических конструкций и словарный запас выпускника. На его выполнение ученику дается 40 минут. Давайте посмотрим, что предстоит делать школьнику.

Задание 1:
Дан текст, в котором пропущено 7 слов. Справа от текста приведены слова, которые нужно преобразовать грамматически (например, поставить глагол в нужное время) и вставить на место пропуска.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Грамматика и лексика, задание 1

Задание 2:
Дан текст с 6 пропусками. Справа приведены слова, которые нужно преобразовать и лексически, и грамматически — образовать однокоренное слово, подходящее по смыслу к тексту.

Максимальное количество баллов:
6 баллов.

Пример:

Грамматика и лексика, задание 2

Задание 3:
Дан текст с 7 пропусками. Вам нужно подобрать к каждому из них 1 верный вариант ответа из четырех предложенных.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Грамматика и лексика, задание 3

Наши советы:

  1. Преобразование слова в первой части, как правило, происходит по следующему принципу. Если вам дан глагол, его нужно либо употребить в правильном времени, либо поставить в правильную форму залога (активную или пассивную), либо образовать от него причастие. Если дано прилагательное, надо поставить его в сравнительную или превосходную степень. Если нужно изменить числительное, скорее всего, надо сделать его порядковым.
  2. Во второй части в основном проверяется знание суффиксов и приставок, в том числе отрицательных, умение образовывать разные части речи от однокоренного слова.
  3. В третьей части чаще всего проверяется знание сочетаемости слов, так называемые collocations. Кроме того, из 4 слов вам нужно будет выбрать наиболее подходящее по смыслу, то есть надо знать разницу между похожими словами, вчитываться в контекст.

Письмо

На написание и проверку 2 письменных работ выпускнику дается 80 минут.

Задание 1:
Дан текст короткого письма от друга, в котором задаются вопросы. Ученику нужно прочитать его и написать письмо-ответ: ответить на вопросы друга и задать вопросы ему.

Объем:
100-140 слов.

Максимальное количество баллов:
6 баллов.

Пример:

Письмо, задание 1

Письмо другу пишется в неформальном стиле. Структура этой работы следующая:

  1. Оформляем «шапку»

    В правом верхнем углу пишем адрес: на верхней строчке указываем город, под ним — страну проживания. Не надо писать улицу и номер дома
    : это может расцениваться, как разглашение конфиденциальной информации, даже если адрес вымышленный.

    После адреса пропускаем 1 строчку и пишем дату написания письма все в том же верхнем правом углу.

    Далее, как обычно, слева пишем неофициальное обращение: Dear Tom/Jim (имя будет дано в задании). Здесь недопустимо писать Hello. После обращения ставим запятую и продолжаем писать текст письма с новой строчки.

  2. Текст письма

    Каждый абзац начинаем писать с красной строки.

    В первом абзаце нужно поблагодарить друга за полученное письмо (Thanks a lot for your last letter) и извиниться, что вы не написали раньше (Sorry I haven’t been in touch for so long). Также можно упомянуть какой-то факт из полученного письма.

    В четвертом абзаце нужно подвести итог — сообщить, что вы заканчиваете письмо (I’ve got to go now! It’s time for my favourite TV show), и предложить поддерживать связь (Take care and keep in touch!).

  3. Конец письма

    В конце вам нужно написать завершающую фразу-клише, после которой всегда ставится запятая: All the best, Best wishes, и т. д.

    На следующей строке под этой фразой вы указываете свое имя.

Задание 2:
Дано утверждение (обычно спорное). Выпускник пишет эссе, в котором рассуждает на эту тему, высказывает свою точку зрения, а также приводит противоположное мнение и объясняет, почему он с ним не согласен.

Объем:
200-250 слов.

Максимальное количество баллов:
14 баллов.

Пример:

Письмо, задание 2

Эссе пишется в нейтральном стиле и состоит из 5 абзацев:

  1. Вступление: формулируем тему-проблему и сразу указываем, что есть две противоположные точки зрения.
  2. Ваше мнение: выражаем свою точку зрения (одну) по этому вопросу и приводим 2-3 аргумента, которые ее подтверждают.
  3. Противоположные мнения: пишем 1-2 противоположные точки зрения и приводим аргументы в пользу их существования.
  4. Выражаем несогласие: поясняем, почему не согласны с вышеуказанными точками зрения, и приводим аргументы в защиту собственного мнения. При этом они не должны повторять аргументы из пункта 2.
  5. Заключение: делаем вывод по данной теме, указываем, что существуют разные точки зрения, и окончательно подтверждаем свою точку зрения.

Наши советы:

  1. Придерживаться требуемого объема. Допустимо на 10% отклоняться от указанного количества слов, то есть можно написать от 90 до 154 слов в письме и от 180 до 275 — в эссе. Если выпускник напишет хотя бы на 1 слово меньше (89), ему поставят 0 баллов за задание. Если лимит будет превышен, экзаменатор отсчитает 140 слов в письме или 250 в эссе и будет оценивать его, притом снимет баллы за незавершенную работу, оформление задания, раскрытие темы и т. д.
  2. Избегать абзацев, состоящих из одного предложения, нужно дополнять и аргументировать каждую свою мысль. Для этого можно использовать конструкции In my opinion, I believe и т. д.
  3. Следить за стилем письменных работ: в письме допустимы разговорные выражения вроде Guess what? или Wish me luck!, а в эссе лучше придерживаться более формального стиля. Важно не переусердствовать с «неформальностями»: всевозможные well, cause и сленговые выражения недопустимы.
  4. Использовать слова-связки , они делают текст логичным, позволяют дополнять или противопоставлять предложения.

Устная речь

Устная часть экзамена самая короткая, она занимает всего 15 минут. Выпускнику нужно успеть выполнить целых 4 задания, за которые можно получить максимум 20 баллов. Ученик сдает задания перед компьютером, его ответы записываются при помощи гарнитуры, а на экране показывается отсчет времени. В аудитории при этом присутствует организатор, который следит за ходом экзамена.

Задание 1:
На экране отображается текст научно-популярного характера. За 1,5 минуты нужно подготовиться и в следующие 1,5 минуты выразительно прочитать его вслух.

Время выполнения:
не более 3 минут.

Максимальное количество баллов:
1 балл.

Пример:

Устная речь, задание 1

Время выполнения:
около 3 минут.

Максимальное количество баллов:
5 баллов.

Пример:

Устная речь, задание 2

Задание 3:
Показывают 3 фотографии. Нужно выбрать 1 и описать ее по предложенному тут же в задании плану.

Время выполнения:
около 3,5 минут.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Устная речь, задание 3

Задание 4:
Даны 2 картинки. Нужно сравнить их, описать сходства и различия, объяснить, почему выбранная тематика близка выпускнику.

Время выполнения:
около 3,5 минут.

Максимальное количество баллов:
7 баллов.

Пример:

Устная речь, задание 4

Наши советы:

  1. Воспользуйтесь онлайн-тренажером устной части экзамена
    на сайте injaz.ege.edu.ru . Он полностью имитирует экзамен, так что вы познакомитесь с форматом и поймете, что конкретно вам нужно делать, в какое время укладываться и т. д.
  2. Для отработки первой части экзамена нужно брать тексты разной тематики и учиться читать их с правильным выражением
    : в речи должны быть паузы, логические ударения, естественная интонация. Кроме того, выпускник должен укладываться в полторы минуты, ведь балл снижается, если текст не дочитан до конца. Однако торопиться тоже нельзя, ведь проверяется не скорость чтения, а умение выразительно прочитать текст.
  3. Чтобы успешно выполнить второе задание, нужно учиться задавать вопросы к различным текстам
    . В принципе, само задание элементарное, большинство ошибок связано с потерей вспомогательного глагола или неправильным его согласованием с существительным. Эта проблема легко решается с помощью многократного выполнения упражнений на составление вопросов.
  4. В третьем задании экзаменуемому нужно выбрать 1 фото из 3 предложенных и описать его. Здесь наш главный совет — внимательно читать задание
    . Дело в том, что оно немного изменяется каждый год, поэтому учитесь отвечать соответственно формулировкам 2018 года. В 2018 году выпускникам предстоит описывать фотографию другу, то есть в монологе должно звучать обращение к нему. Кроме того, необходимо отвечать на все вопросы в задании
    , например, если сказано where and when the photo was taken, вам нужно ответить на оба вопроса — где и когда. В начале надо обязательно сообщить, о каком фото пойдет речь (I’ve chosen photo number…). Не забывайте также о вступительной (Would you like to have a look at my picture? / I’d like to show you a picture from my photo album.) и заключительной (That’s all for now. / I hope you liked my picture.) фразах, которые делают речь логичной.
  5. В четвертом задании нужно сделать основной упор в речи на сравнение картинок
    , а не их описании. При этом нужно использовать речевые клише
    : The first picture depicts… whereas/while the second picture depicts…, The main difference is that…, In comparison to the first picture, this one… и т. д. Больше подобных речевых клише вы выучите с помощью нашей статьи «Фразы для сравнения и противопоставления ».

Учебники и сайты для подготовки к ЕГЭ по английскому языку 2018

Теперь вы знакомы со структурой экзамена и понимаете, что выпускникам предстоит непростое испытание. Однако ЕГЭ по английскому в 2018 году можно сдать легко и успешно, если заранее хорошенько к нему подготовиться. И в этом ученику поможет в первую очередь хороший преподаватель, а также ресурсы для подготовки к этому экзамену. Мы хотим познакомить вас с некоторыми учебниками и сайтами, которые наши преподаватели используют при подготовке своих студентов к ЕГЭ. Возьмите на заметку хотя бы несколько из них.

  1. Серия учебников Macmillan Exam Skills for Russia включает в себя книги по подготовке к каждой части ЕГЭ. Благодаря аутентичным текстам и заданиям эта серия — одна из лучших для подготовки к экзаменам. Эти книги довольно сложные, поэтому заниматься по ним мы рекомендуем школьникам с уровнем не ниже Intermediate.
  2. «Типовые экзаменационные варианты ЕГЭ под редакцией Вербицкой» — существуют в различных вариациях, включают в себя типовые задания ЕГЭ с ответами. С помощью книги можно проверить, насколько хорошо выпускник готов к сдаче экзамена.
  3. fipi.ru — официальный сайт Федерального института педагогических измерений, на котором представлен большой банк типовых заданий к ЕГЭ. На указанной странице кликните по надписи «Английский язык» и в открывшейся вкладке слева выберите навык, который хотите тренировать. Обратите внимание: на сайте нет ответов к заданиям, поэтому, чтобы старания выпускника не пропали зря, мы советуем заниматься с преподавателем и передавать выполненные задания ему на проверку.
  4. , talkenglish.com , podcastsinenglish.com — сайты с обучающими подкастами на английском языке. На них, конечно, нет типовых заданий для ЕГЭ, зато можно потренировать навык восприятия речи на слух интересным способом и немного отвлечься от однотипных заданий к экзамену.

Наш преподаватель Наталья подготовила уже не один десяток отличников к ЕГЭ по английскому языку, в своей статье «Exam, be good to me, или Как успешно сдать ЕГЭ по английскому » она делится личным опытом и советами для выпускников.

Итак, теперь вы представляете себе объемы работы и знаете секреты успешной сдачи ЕГЭ по английскому языку. Мы желаем всем выпускникам легких экзаменов и высоких баллов! А если вы еще не нашли подходящего учителя, запишитесь к нам на .

Обновлено: 26.09.2019

103583

Если заметили ошибку, выделите фрагмент текста и нажмите Ctrl+Enter

Read the article below. Use the words in the brackets to form new words that fit in the same numbered space in the text.

Kate’s birthday
It was Friday. My friend Kate invited me to her birthday party. I thought it was a good idea to do some shopping and buy Kate a present in the (CLOSE) department store. I knew that her husband Paul (BUY) her a beautiful ring. He was sure she (LIKE) it.
Museums
There are many beautiful museums in Greece. A few months ago one of the most striking museums in the world (OPEN) in Athens. It’s the New Archaelogical Museum of Athens. The museum (EXHIBIT) ancient objects from the Acropolis and is an excellent international reference point for people interested in the classics. While they (EXCAVATE) to build the museum, archaeologists found some remains of ancient Athens. If a foreigner (COME) to Athens, he is sure to visit the New Archaelogical Museum of Athens.
Buckingham Palace
Londoners have a love-hate relationship with Buckingham Palace. To some, the Queen’s home is ugly, but it’s also held in esteem as the symbol of Britain’s (ROYAL) .The palace arose within a mulberry grove in the early 18th century as a mansion for the (POWER) Duke of Buckingham. It was purchased in 1761 by George III for his wife Queen Charlotte (he preferred to live in St James’s Palace). However, it wasn’t (LUXURY) enough for George IV. After the building came under his control in 1820 he commissioned his favourite architect, John Nash, to (BUILD) it on a more magnificent scale. Despite costly alterations, which reached around half a million pounds, the palace wasn’t occupied until Victoria became Queen in 1837 and made it the (OFFICE) royal residence in London. The palace has 775 rooms, of which 19 are State Rooms. But only two sections of the palace are (REGULAR) open to the public: the Royal Mews which contain royal vehicles from coaches and Rolls-Royces to horses, and the Queen’s Gallery, which displays paintings from the priceless Royal Collection.

Task 1 Прочитайте текст и заполните пропуски A–F частями предложений, обозначенными цифрами 1–7. Одна из частей в списке 1–7 лишняя. Занесите цифру, обозначающую соответствующую часть предложения, в таблицу.

Fire Crews Hunt Escaped Hamster

Eight firefighters have been called in to help find an escaped hamster. Two crews used a chocolate-covered camera and a vacuum cleaner A ____ , called Fudgie, at the home of a six-year-old girl in Dunbar, Scotland.

The girl’s mother said: ‘We came down for breakfast and discovered Fudgie had opened the top lid of her cage and had made her way into the kitchen and we think she has gone В ____ .’

The fire crews spent five hours trying to recover the pet after it ran down a hole in the kitchen floor. But, the hamster still refused С ____ .

In the search for Fudgie, the firefighters took the family cooker and gas pipes apart. They also dropped a mini-camera coated with chocolate under the floorboards. They then hoped to take out the hamster using a vacuum cleaner. Despite all their efforts, they failed to find Fudgie.

In the end, the firefighters put another camera down the hole D ____ , connected to the screen of the family home computer, to see if Fudgie appeared. Besides, the girl and her parents regularly dropped food E ____ .

At last, after eight days the hamster returned to her cage safe and sound. She crawled from the hole in the kitchen floor early in the morning. It was the girl’s father who first found Fudgie F ____ .

The girl said that day it was like Christmas morning for her. Her parents added that they too felt extremely happy when Fudgie had finally returned.

  1. through a small hole in the floor

  2. through the hole for the hamster

  3. and locked the runaway hamster

  4. to come out of the hole

  5. to look after the pet

  6. to try and locate the missing hamster

  7. and left it under the floorboards

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

1

4

7

2

3

Task 2

Speed of eating is ‘key to obesity’

If you eat very quickly, it may be enough to increase your risk of being overweight, research suggests.

Osaka University scientists looked at the eating habits of 3,000 people. Just about half of them told researchers that they A ______ . Compared with those who did not eat quickly, fast-eating men were 84% more likely to be overweight, and women were 100% more likely to В ______ .

Japanese scientists said that there were a number of reasons why eating fast С ______ . They said it could prevent the work of a signalling system which tells your brain to stop eating because your stomach is full. They said: ‘If you eat quickly you basically fill your stomach before the system has a chance to react, so you D _____ .

The researchers also explained that a mechanism that helps make us fat today, developed with evolution and helped people get more food in the periods when they were short of it. The scientists added that the habit of eating fast could be received from one’s parents genes or E ______ .

They said that, if possible, children should be taught to F ______ , and allowed to stop when they felt full up at mealtimes. ‘The advice of our grandmothers about chewing everything 20 times might be true — if you take a bit more time eating, it could have a positive influence on your weight.

  1. just overfill your stomach

  2. could be bad for your weight

  3. have a habit of eating quickly

  4. linked to obesity

  5. eat as slowly as possible

  6. put on weight

  7. learned at a very early age

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

3

6

2

1

7

5

Task 3

Hi-Tech Brings Families Together 

Technology is helping families stay in touch like never before, says a report carried out in the US.

Instead of driving people apart, mobile phones and the Internet are A ____ . The research looked at the differences in technology use between families with children and single adults. It found that traditional families have more hi-tech gadgets in their home В ____ . Several mobile phones were found in 89% of families and 66% had a high-speed Internet connection. The research also found that 58% of families have more С ____ .

Many people use their mobile phone to keep in touch and communicate with parents and children. Seventy percent of couples, D ____ , use it every day to chat or say hello. In addition, it was found that 42% of parents contact their children via their mobile every day.

The growing use of mobile phones, computers and the Internet means that families no longer gather round the TV to spend time together. 25% of those who took part in the report said they now spend less time E ____ . Only 58% of 18—29 year olds said they watched TV every day. Instead the research found that 52% of Internet users who live with their families go online F ____ several times a week and 51% of parents browse the web with their children.

Some analysts have worried that new technologies hurt families, but we see that technology allows for new kinds of connectedness built around cell phones and the Internet/ said the report.

  1. than any other group

  2. watching television

  3. in the company of someone else

  4. than two computers in the home

  5. communicated with their families

  6. helping them communicate

  7. owning a mobile

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

1

4

7

2

3

Task 4

The Power of ‘Hello’ 

I work at a company where there are hundreds of employees. I know most of them and almost all of them know me. It is all based on one simple principle: I believe every single person deserves to be acknowledged, A ______ .

When I was about 10 years old, I was walking down the street with my mother. She stopped to speak to Mr. Lee. I knew I could see Mr. Lee any time around the neighborhood, В ______ .

After we passed Mr. Lee, my mother said something that has stuck with me from that day until now. She said, ‘You let that be the last time you ever walk by somebody and not open up your mouth to speak, because even a dog can wag its tail С______ . That phrase sounds simple, but it has been a guidepost for me and the foundation of who I am. I started to see that when I spoke to someone, they spoke back. And that felt good. It is not just something I believe in — D ______ . I believe that every person deserves to feel someone acknowledges their presence, no matter how unimportant they may be.

At work, I always used to say ‘hello’ to the founder of the company and ask him how our business was doing. But I was also speaking to the people in the cafe, and asked how their children were doing. I remembered after a few years of passing by the founder, I had the courage to ask him for a meeting. We had a great talk.

At a certain point, I asked him E ______ . He said, ‘If you want to, you can get all the way to this seat.’ I have become vice president, but that has not changed the way I approach people. I speak to everyone I see, no matter where I am. I have learned that speaking to people creates a pathway into their world, F ______ .

  1. it has become a way of life.

  2. when it passes you on the street.

  3. when you see him and talk to him.

  4. and it lets them come into mine, too.

  5. so I did not pay any attention to him.

  6. however small or simple the greeting is.

  7. how far he thought I could go in his company.

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

5

2

1

7

4

Task 5

Friendship and Love

 A strong friendship takes a significant amount of time to develop. It will not just magically mature overnight. A friendship involves committing oneself to help another person A ______ . I believe that, nothing can replace a true friend, not material objects, or money, and definitely not a boy.

I met this guy a couple summers ago who I ended up spending almost all of my free time with. His parents did not approve of our dating because of our age difference, В ______ . He had told me the day we met that he had joined the air force and would leave for overseas that coming October. After three months had past, the time came when he had to leave. This left me feeling completely alone.

I turned to my friends for support, but to my surprise, С ______ . I had spent so much time with this guy and so little time with them, that they did not feel sorry for me when he left. For so long they had become the only constant in my life, and I had taken them for granted over something D ______ .

When my boyfriend came back, our relationship changed. I tried to fix all the aspects in my life that had gone so wrong in the previous six months.

This experience taught me that true friendships will only survive if one puts forth effort to make them last. Keeping friends close will guarantee that E ______ . When a relationship falls apart, a friend will always do everything in their power to make everything less painful. As for me, I try to keep my friends as close as I can. I know they will always support me in whatever I do, and to them, I F ______ .

  1. but we did anyway.

  2. whenever a need arises.

  3. they did not really care.

  4. whenever they need your help.

  5. could not guarantee would even last.

  6. am eternally grateful for a second chance.

  7. someone will always have a shoulder to cry on.

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

1

3

5

7

6

Task 6

Mobile phones

 On New Year’s Day, 1985, Michael Harrison phoned his father, Sir Ernest, to wish him a happy new year. Sir Ernest was chairman of Racal Electronics, the owner of Vodafone, A ______ .

At the time, mobile phones weighed almost a kilogram, cost several thousand pounds and provided only 20 minutes talktime. The networks themselves were small; Vodafone had just a dozen masts covering London. Nobody had any idea of the huge potential of wireless communication and the dramatic impact В ______ .

Hardly anyone believed there would come a day when mobile phones were so popular С ______ .But in 1999 one mobile phone was sold in the UK every four seconds, and by 2004 there were more mobile phones in the UK than people. The boom was a result of increased competition which pushed prices lower and created innovations in the way that mobiles were sold.

When the government introduced more competition, companies started cutting prices to attract more customers. Cellnet, for example, changed its prices, D ______ . It also introduced local call tariffs.

The way that handsets themselves were marketed was also changing and it was Finland’s Nokia who made E ______ . In the late 1990s Nokia realized that the mobile phone was a fashion item: so it offered interchangeable covers which allowed you to customize and personalize your handset.

The mobile phone industry has spent the later part of the past decade reducing its monthly charge F ______ , which has culminated in the fight between the iPhone and a succession of touch screen rivals.

  1. trying to persuade people to do more with their phones than just call and text

  2. that there would be more phones in the UK than there are people

  3. and relying instead on actual call charges

  4. that mobile phones would have over the next quarter century

  5. the leap from phones as technology to phones as fashion items

  6. and his son was making the first-ever mobile phone call in the UK

  7. the move to digital technology, connecting machines to wireless networks

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

4

2

1

5

3

Task 7

London Zoo

 London Zoo is one of the most important zoos in the world. There are over 12,000 animals at London Zoo and A ______ ! Its main concern is to breed threatened animals in captivity. This means we might be able to restock the wild, should disaster ever befall the wild population.

Partula Snail, Red Crowned Crane, Arabian Oryx, Golden Lion Tamarin, Persian Leopard, Asiatic Lion and Sumatran Tiger are just some of the species London Zoo is helping to save.

That is why it is so important that we fight to preserve the habitats that these animals live in, as well as eliminate other dangers В ______ . But we aim to make your day at London Zoo a fun and memorable time, С ______ .

In the Ambika Paul Children’s Zoo, for instance, youngsters can learn a new love and appreciation for animals D ______ . They can also learn how to care for favourite pets in the Pet Care Centre.

Then there are numerous special Highlight events E ______ unforgettable pony rides to feeding times and spectacular animal displays. You will get to meet keepers and ask them what you are interested in about the animals they care for, F ______ .

Whatever you decide, you will have a great day. We have left no stone unturned to make sure you do!

  1. such as hunting exotic animals and selling furs

  2. as well as the ins and outs of being a keeper at London Zoo

  3. which take place every day, from

  4. because they see and touch them close up

  5. despite the serious side to our work

  6. which demand much time and effort

  7. that is not counting every ant in the colony

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

7

1

5

4

3

2

Task 8

‘Second Stonehenge’ discovered near original

 Archaeologists have discovered evidence of what they believe was a second Stonehenge located a little more than a mile away from the world-famous prehistoric monument.

The new find on the west bank of the river Avon has been called «Bluestonehenge», after the colour of the 25 Welsh stones of A______.

Excavations at the site have suggested there was once a stone circle 10 metres in diameter and surrounded by a henge — a ditch with an external bank, according to the project director, Professor Mike Parker Pearson, of the University of Sheffield.

The stones at the site were removed thousands of years ago but the sizes of the holes in B ______ indicate that this was a circle of bluestones, brought from the Preseli mountains of Wales, 150 miles away.

The standing stones marked the end of the avenue C _____, a 1¾-mile long processional route constructed at the end of the Stone Age. The outer henge around the stones was built about 2400BC but arrowheads found in the stone circle indicate the stones were put up as much as 500 years earlier.

Parker Pearson said his team was waiting for results of radiocarbon dating D _____ whether stones currently in the inner circle of Stonehenge were originally located at the other riverside construction.

Pearson said: «The big, big question is when these stones were erected and when they were removed — and when we get the dating evidence we can answer both those questions.»

He added: «We speculated in the past E ______ at the end of the avenue near the river. But we were completely unprepared to discover that there was an entire stone circle. Another team member, Professor Julian Thomas, said the discovery indicated F______was central to the religious lives of the people who built Stonehenge. «Old theories about Stonehenge that do not explain the evident significance of the river will have to be rethought,» he said. Dr Josh Pollard, project co-director from the University of Bristol, described the discovery as «incredible».

  1. which could reveal

  2. which they stood

  3. which it was once made up

  4. that this stretch of the river Avon

  5. that there might have been something

  6. that it should be considered as integral part

  7. that leads from the river Avon to Stonehenge

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

3

2

7

1

5

4

Task 9

Australia

 Australia was the last great landmass to be discovered by the Europeans. The continent they eventually discovered had already been inhabited for tens of thousands of years.

Australia is an island continent A _____ is the result of gradual changes wrought over millions of years.

B ____, Australia is one of the most stable land masses, and for about 100 million years has been free of the forces that have given rise to huge mountain ranges elsewhere.

From the east coast a narrow, fertile strip merges into the greatly eroded Great Dividing Range, C ____.

The mountains are merely reminders of the mighty range, D ____. Only in the section straddling the New South Wales border with Victoria and in Tasmania, are they high enough to have winter snow.

West of the range of the country becomes increasingly flat and dry. The endless flatness is broken only by salt lakes, occasional mysterious protuberances and some mountains E ____. In places the scant vegetation is sufficient to allow some grazing. However, much of the Australian outback is a barren land of harsh stone deserts and dry lakes.

The extreme north of Australia, the Top End, is a tropical area within the monsoon belt. F ____, it comes in more or less one short, sharp burst. This has prevented the Top End from becoming seriously productive area.

  1. that once stood here

  2. that is almost continent long

  3. whose property is situated to the north of Tasmania

  4. whose landscape — much of bleak and inhospitable

  5. whose beauty reminds of the MacDonald Ranges

  6. Although its annual rainfall looks adequate on paper

  7. Although there is still seismic activity in the eastern highland area

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

4

7

2

1

5

6

Task 10

Scotland Yard

 Scotland Yard is the headquarters of the Metropolitan Police in London. To most people, its name immediately brings to mind the picture of a detective — cool, efficient, ready to track down any criminal, or a helmeted police constable — A____ and trusty helper of every traveller from overseas.

Scotland Yard is situated on the Thames Embankment close to the Houses of Parliament and the familiar clock tower of Big Ben, and its jurisdiction extends over 740 square miles with the exception of the ancient City of London, B____.

One of the most successful developments in Scotland Yard’s crime detection and emergency service has been the “999 system”. On receipt of a call the 999 Room operator ascertains by electronic device the position of the nearest available police car, C ____. Almost instantly a message is also sent by teleprinter to the police station concerned so that within seconds of a call for assistance being received, a police car is on its way to the scene. An old-established section of the Metropolitan police is the Mounted Branch, with its strength of about 200 horses stabled at strategic points. These horses are particularly suited to ceremonial occasions, D ____.

An interesting branch of Scotland Yard is the branch of Police Dogs, first used as an experiment in 1939. Now these dogs are an important part of the Force. One dog, for example, can search a warehouse in ten minutes, E ____.

There is also the River Police, or Thames Division, which deals with all crimes occurring within its river boundaries.

There are two other departments of Scotland Yard – the Witness Room (known as the Rogues’ Gallery) where a photographic record of known and suspected criminals is kept, and the Museum, F ____.

  1. which is contacted by radio

  2. that familiar figure of the London scene

  3. for they are accustomed to military bands

  4. which possesses its own separate police force

  5. which contains murder relics and forgery exhibits

  6. that this policeman will bring the criminal to justice

  7. whereas the same search would take six men an hour

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

4

1

3

7

5

Task 11

Harry Potter course for university students 

Students of Durham University are being given the chance to sign up to what is thought to be the UK’s first course focusing on the world of Harry Potter. Although every English-speaking person in the world knows about Harry Potter books and films, few have thought of using them as a guide to … modern life.

The Durham University module uses the works of JK Rowling A ______ modern society. “Harry Potter and the Age of Illusion” will be available for study next year. So far about 80 undergraduates have signed В ______ a BA degree in Education Studies. Future educationalists will analyse JK Rowling’s fanfiction from various points of view.

A university spokesman said: “This module places the Harry Potter novels in a wider social and cultural context.” He added that a number of themes would be explored, С ______ the classroom, bullying, friendship and solidarity and the ideals of and good citizenship.

The module was created by the head of the Department of Education at Durham University. He said the idea for the new module had appeared in response D ______ body: “It seeks to place the series in its wider social and cultural context and will explore some fundamental issues E ______ . You just need to read the academic writing which started F ______ that Harry Potter is worthy of serious study.”

  1. up for the optional module, part of

  2. to emerge four or five years ago to see

  3. to examine prejudice, citizenship and bullying in

  4. such as the response of the writer

  5. including the world of rituals, prejudice and intolerance in

  6. to growing demand from the student

  7. such as the moral universe of the school

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

3

1

5

6

7

2

Task 12

Laughing and evolution

 The first hoots of laughter from an ancient ancestor of humans could be heard at least 10 million years ago, according to the results of a new study. Researchers used recordings of apes and babies being tickled A ______ to the last common ancestor that humans shared with the modern great apes, which include chimpanzees, gorillas and orangutans.

The finding challenges the opinion В ______ , suggesting instead that it emerged long before humans split from the evolutionary path that led to our primate cousins, between 10m and 16m years ago.

“In humans, laughing can be the strongest way of expressing how much we are enjoying ourselves, but it can also be used in other contexts, like making fun of someone,” said Marina Davila Ross, a psychologist at Portsmouth University. “I was interested in С ______ .”

Davila Ross travelled to seven zoos around Europe and visited a wildlife reserve in Sabah, Borneo, to record baby and juvenile apes D ______ . Great apes are known to make noises that are similar to laughter when they are excited and while they are playing with each other.

Davila Ross collected recordings of laughter from 21 chimps, gorillas, orangutans and bonobos and added recordings of three babies that were tickled to make them laugh.

To analyze the recordings, the team put them into a computer program. “Our evolutionary tree based on these acoustic recordings alone showed E ______ , but furthest from orangutans, with gorillas somewhere in the middle.” said Davila Ross. “What this shows is strong evidence to suggest F ______ .”

  1. whether laughing emerged earlier on than humans did

  2. to create the evolutionary tree linking humans and apes

  3. that laughter is a uniquely human trait

  4. that humans were closest to chimps and bonobos

  5. that laughing comes from a common primate ancestor

  6. while their caretakers tickled them

  7. to trace the origin of laughter back

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

7

3

1

6

4

5

Task 13

Nenets culture affected by global warming

 For 1,000 years the indigenous Nenets people have migrated along the 450-mile- long Yamal peninsula in northern Russia. In summer they wander northwards, taking their reindeer with them. In winter they return southwards.

But this remote region of north-west Siberia is now being affected by global warming. Traditionally the Nenets travel across the frozen River Ob in November A ___ around Nadym. These days, though, this annual winter migration is delayed. Last year the Nenets, together with many thousands of reindeer, had to wait until late December В ____ .

“Our reindeer were hungry. There wasn’t enough food,” Jakov Japtik, a Nenets reindeer herder, said. “The snow is melting sooner, quicker and faster than before. In spring it’s difficult for the reindeer to pull the sledges. They get tired,” Japtik said.

Herders say that the peninsula’s weather is increasingly unpredictable — with unseasonal snowstorms  С ___, and milder longer autumns. In winter, temperatures used to go down to -50°C. Now they are normally around -30°C, according to Japtik. “Obviously we prefer -30°C. But the changes aren’t good for the reindeer D ___,” he said, setting off on his sledge to round up his reindeer herd.

Even here, in one of the most remote parts of the planet, E __ . Last year the Nenets arrived at a regular summer camping spot and discovered that half of their lake had disappeared. The water had drained away after a landslide. The Nenets report other curious changes — there are fewer mosquitoes and a strange increase in flies. Scientists say there is unmistakable evidence F ___ .

  1. when the ice was finally thick enough to cross

  2. that the impact on Russia would be disastrous

  3. the environment is under pressure

  4. and in the end what is good for the reindeer is good for us

  5. and set up their camps in the southern forests

  6. that Yamal’s ancient permafrost is melting

  7. when the reindeer give birth in May

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Task 14

Duration of life and its social implications

The world’s population is about to reach a landmark of huge social and economic importance, when the proportion of the global population over 65 outnumbers children under 5 for the first time. A new report by the US census bureau shows A____ , with enormous consequences for both rich and poor nations.

The rate of growth will shoot up in the next couple of years. The В ___ a combination of the high birth rates after the Second World War and more recent improvements in health that are bringing down death rates at older ages. Separate UN forecasts predict that the global population will be more than nine billion by 2050.

The US census bureau was the first to sound the С ___ . Its latest forecasts warn governments and international bodies that this change in population structure will bring widespread challenges at every level of human organization, starting with the structure of the family, which will be transformed as people live longer. This will in turn place new burdens on careers and social services providers, D ___ for health services and pensions systems.

“People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives,” the authors conclude. “This represents one of the greatest achievements of the last century but also a significant challenge E ___ population.”

Ageing will put pressure on societies at all levels. One way of measuring that is to look at the older dependency ratio, F ___ that must be supported by them. The ODR is the number of people aged 65 and over for every 100 people aged 20 to 64. It varies widely, from just six in Kenya to 33 in Italy and Japan. The UK has an ODR of 26, and the US has 21.

  1. which recently replaced Italy as the world’s oldest major country

  2. alarm about these changes

  3. a huge shift towards an ageing population

  4. change is due to

  5. while patterns of work and retirement will have huge implications

  6. which shows the balance between working-age people and the older

  7. as proportions of older people increase in most countries

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Task 15

Elephants sense ‘danger’ clothes

 St Andrews University researchers discovered that elephants could recognise the degree of danger posed by various groups of individuals. The study found that African elephants always reacted with fear A ______ previously worn by men of the Maasai tribe. They are known to demonstrate their courage by В ______ .

The elephants also responded aggressively to red clothing, which defines traditional Maasai dress.

However, the elephants showed a much milder reaction to clothing previously worn by the Kamba people, С ______ and pose little threat.

The researchers first presented elephants with clean, red clothing and with red clothing that had been worn for five days by D ______ .

They revealed that Maasai-smelt clothing motivated elephants to travel significantly faster in the first minute after they moved away.

They then investigated whether elephants could also use the colour of clothing as a cue to classify a potential threat and found the elephants reacted with aggression E ______ . This suggested that they associated the colour red with the Maasai.

The researchers believe the distinction in the elephants’ emotional reaction to smell and colour might be explained by F ______ . They might be able to distinguish among different human groups according to the level of risk they posed.

«We regard this experiment as just a start to investigating precisely how elephants ‘see the world’, and it may be that their abilities will turn out to equal or exceed those of our closer relatives, the monkeys and apes,» researchers added.

  1. either a Maasai or a Kamba man

  2. who do not hunt elephants

  3. when they detected the smell of clothes

  4. who carried out the research

  5. the amount of risk they sense

  6. spearing elephants

  7. when they spotted red but not white cloth

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Task 16

Culture and customs

 In less than twenty years, the mobile telephone has gone from being rare, expensive equipment of the business elite to a pervasive, low-cost personal item. In many countries, mobile telephones A ___ ; in the U.S., 50 per cent of children have mobile telephones. In many young adults’ households it has supplanted the land-line telephone. The mobile phone is В ___ , such as North Korea.

Paul Levinson in his 2004 book Cellphone argues that by looking back through history we can find many precursors to the idea of people simultaneously walking and talking on a mobile phone. Mobile phones are the next extension in portable media, that now can be С ___ into one device. Levinson highlights that as the only mammal to use only two out of our four limbs to walk, we are left two hands free D ___ — like talking on a mobile phone.

Levinson writes that “Intelligence and inventiveness, applied to our need to communicate regardless of where we may be, led logically and eventually to telephones that we E ___ .”

Given the high levels of societal mobile telephone service penetration, it is a key means for people F ___ . The SMS feature spawned the «texting» sub-culture. In December 1993, the first person-to-person SMS text message was transmitted in Finland. Currently, texting is the most widely-used data service; 1.8 billion users generated $80 billion of revenue in 2006.

  1. to perform other actions

  2. outnumber traditional telephones

  3. to communicate with each other

  4. combined with the Internet

  5. to serve basic needs

  6. banned in some countries

  7. carry in our pockets

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Task 17

My Stage

 My family moved to Rockaway, New Jersey in the summer of 1978. It was there that my dreams of stardom began.

I was nine years old. Heather Lambrix lived next door, and she and I became best friends. I thought she was so lucky A ___ . She took tap and jazz and got to wear cool costumes with bright sequences and makeup and perform on stage. I went to all of her recitals and В ___ .

My living room and sometimes the garage were my stage. I belonged to a cast of four, which consisted of Heather, my two younger sisters, Lisa and Faith, and I. Since I was the oldest and the bossiest, I was the director. Heather came with her own costumes С ___ . We choreographed most of our dance numbers as we went along. Poor Faith … we would throw her around D ___ . She was only about four or five … and so agile. We danced around in our bathing suits to audiocassettes and records from all the Broadway musicals. We’d put a small piece of plywood on the living room carpet, E ___ . And I would imitate her in my sneakers on the linoleum in the hall. I was a dancer in the making.

My dad eventually converted a part of our basement into a small theater. He hung two “spotlights” and a sheet for a curtain. We performed dance numbers to tunes like “One” and “The Music and the Mirror” from A Chorus Line. I sang all the songs from Annie. I loved to sing, F ___. I just loved to sing. So I belted out songs like “Tomorrow”, “Maybe” and “What I Did For Love.” I knew then, this is what I wanted to do with my life.

  1. like she was a rag doll

  2. whether I was good at it or not

  3. wished I, too, could be on stage

  4. and I designed the rest

  5. and I was star struck

  6. so Heather could do her tap routine

  7. because she got to go to dance lessons

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Task 18

Cat’s punctuality

 Sergeant Podge, a Norwegian Forest Cat, disappears from his owner’s home in a small town in Kent, every night. But what baffles his owner, Liz Bullard, mostly is the fact that the next morning, the 12-year-old cat always pops up in exactly the same place, A ___ . And every morning Ms. Bullard takes her son to school before collecting Sergeant Podge.

She said that the routine had set in earlier this year, when Sergeant Podge disappeared one day. Ms. Bullard spent hours telephoning her neighbours В ___ .

An elderly woman living about one and a half miles away called back to inform Ms. Bullard that she had found a cat matching Sergeant Podge’s description. Ms. Bullard picked him up but within days he vanished from sight again. She rang the elderly woman С ___ .

She said a routine has now become established, where each morning she takes her son to school before driving to collect Sergeant Podge D ___ .

It is thought Sergeant Podge walks across a golf course every night to reach his destination.

Ms. Bullard said: “If it’s raining he may be in the bush but he comes running if I clap my hands.” All she has to do is open the car passenger door from the inside for Sergeant Podge to jump in.

Ms. Bullard also makes the trip at weekends and during school holidays — E ___ .

She does not know why, after 12 years, Sergeant Podge has begun the routine but explained that another woman who lived nearby used to feed him sardines, and that he may be F ___ .

His owner doesn’t mind his wandering off at night as long as she knows where to collect him.

  1. on the look-out for more treats

  2. from the pavement between 0800 and 0815 GMT

  3. to discover Sergeant Podge was back outside her home

  4. on a pavement about one and a half miles (2.4km) away

  5. to identify if anyone had bumped into him

  6. when her son is having a lie-in

  7. collected by car every morning

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Task 19

Do you speak English?

When I arrived in England I thought I knew English. After I’d been here an hour I realized that I did not understand one word. In the first week I picked up a tolerable working knowledge of the language and the next seven years convinced me gradually but thoroughly that I A ______ , let alone perfectly. This is sad. My only consolation being that nobody speaks English perfectly.

Remember that those five hundred words an average Englishman uses are B ______ . You may learn another five hundred and another five thousand and yet another fifty thousand and still you may come across a further fifty thousand C ______ .

If you live here long enough you will find out to your greatest amazement that the adjective nice is not the only adjective the language possesses, in spite of the fact that D ______ . You can say that the weather is nice, a restaurant is nice, Mr. Soandso is nice, Mrs. Soandso’s clothes are nice, you had a nice time, E ______ .

Then you have to decide on your accent. The easiest way to give the impression of having a good accent or no foreign accent at all is to hold an unlit pipe in your mouth, to mutter between your teeth and finish all your sentences with the question: “isn’t it?” People will not understand much, but they are accustomed to that and they will get a F ______ .

  1. whatever it costs

  2. most excellent impression

  3. you have never heard of before, and nobody else either

  4. in the first three years you do not need to learn or use any other adjectives

  5. would never know it really well

  6. far from being the whole vocabulary of the language

  7. and all this

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Task 20

Before the Hubble Space Telescope was launched, scientists thought they knew the universe. They were wrong.

The Hubble Space Telescope has changed many scientists’ view of the universe. The telescope is named after American astronomer Edwin Hubble, A ______ .

He established that many galaxies exist and developed the first system for their classifications.

In many ways, Hubble is like any other telescope. It simply gathers light. It is roughly the size of a large school bus. What makes Hubble special is not what it is, B ______ .

Hubble was launched in 1990 from the “Discovery” space shuttle and it is about 350 miles above our planet, C ______ .

It is far from the glare of city lights, it doesn’t have to look through the air, D ______ .

And what a view it is! Hubble is so powerful it could spot a fly on the moon. Yet in an average orbit, it uses the same amount of energy as 28100-watt light bulbs. Hubble pictures require no film. The telescope takes digital images E ______ .

Hubble has snapped photos of storms on Saturn and exploding stars. Hubble doesn’t just focus on our solar system. It also peers into our galaxy and beyond. Many Hubble photos show the stars that make up the Milky Way galaxy. A galaxy is a city of stars.

Hubble cannot take pictures of the sun or other very bright objects, because doing so could “fry” the telescope’s instruments, but it can detect infrared and ultra violet light F ______ .

Some of the sights of our solar system that Hubble has glimpsed may even change the number of planets in it.

  1. which is above Earth’s atmosphere.

  2. which are transmitted to scientists on Earth.

  3. which is invisible to the human eye.

  4. who calculated the speed at which galaxies move.

  5. so it has a clear view of space.

  6. because many stars are in clouds of gas.

  7. but where it is.

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Task 21

The science of sound, or acoustics, as it is often called, has been made over radically within a comparatively short space of time. Not so long ago the lectures on sound in colleges and high schools dealt chiefly with the vibrations of such things as the air columns in organ pipes. Nowadays, however, thanks chiefly to a number of electronic instruments engineers can study sounds as effectively A ____ . The result has been a new approach to research in sound. Scientists have been able to make far-reaching discoveries in many fields of acoustics B _____ .

Foremost among the instruments that have revolutionized the study of acoustics are electronic sound-level meters also known as sound meters and sound-intensity meters. These are effective devices that first convert sound waves into weak electric signals, then amplify the signals through electronic means C ______ . The intensity of a sound is measured in units called decibels. “Zero” sound is the faintest sound D ______ . The decibel measures the ratio of the intensity of a given sound to the standard “zero” sound. The decibel scale ranges from 0 to 130. An intensity of 130 decibels is perceived not only as a sound, but also E ______ . The normal range of painlessly audible sounds for the average human ear is about 120 decibels. For forms of life other than ourselves, the range can be quite different.

The ordinary sound meter measures the intensity of a given sound, rather than its actual loudness. Under most conditions, however, it is a quite good indicator of loudness. Probably the loudest known noise ever heard by human ears was that of the explosive eruption in August, 1883, of the volcano of Krakatoa in the East Indies. No electronic sound meters, of course, were in existence then, but physicists estimate that the sound at its source must have had an intensity of 190 decibels, F ______ .

  1. and finally measure them.

  2. since it was heard 3,000 miles away.

  3. and they have been able to put many of these discoveries to practical use.

  4. that loud sound is of high intensity.

  5. as they study mechanical forces.

  6. as a painful sensation in the ear.

  7. that the unaided human ear can detect.

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Task 22

Chocolate 

Chocolate is made from a number of raw and processed foods produced from the seeds of tropical cacao trees. Cacao has been cultivated in A ______ at least 3000 years. For most of this time it was made into a drink called, in translation — “bitter water”. This is because В ______ to be fermented to develop a palatable flavour. After fermentation the beans are dried and roasted and the shell is removed to produce cacao nibs. These are then ground and liquefied into chocolate liquor. The liquor is then processed into cocoa solids or cocoa butter. Pure chocolate contains primarily cocoa solids and butter in different proportions. Much of С ______ with added sugar. Milk chocolate is sweetened chocolate that additionally contains either milk powder or condensed milk. White chocolate on the other D ______ is therefore not a true chocolate. Chocolate contains theobromine and phenethylamine which have physiological effects on the body. It is similar to serotonin levels in the brain. Scientists claim E ______ , can lower blood pressure. Recently, dark chocolate has also been promoted for its health benefits. But pet owners should remember that the presence of theobromine makes it toxic to cats and dogs. Chocolate is now one F______ , although 16 of the top 20 chocolate consuming countries are in Europe. Also interesting is that 66% of world chocolate is consumed between meals.

  1. the chocolate consumed today is made

  2. that chocolate, eaten in moderation

  3. central and southern America for

  4. of the world’s most popular flavours

  5. hand contains no cocoa solids and

  6. cacao seeds are intensely bitter and have

  7. many countries worldwide at

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Task 23

Reality TV

 Reality TV seems to dominate broadcasting these days. But what is it, how did it emerge and why on earth is it so popular? The first question is easily answered. Reality TV A ______ presents unscripted, dramatic or humorous situations or events. It can involve celebrities В ______ of the public. Reality TV has been gradually growing in importance for over 60 years. “Candid Camera” — the show that filmed ordinary people reacting to set ups and pranks — started in 1948. Some people, however, believe it was the Japanese with their awful shows in the 1980s and 90s that brought reality TV to centre stage. Others believe С ______ that is called “Big Brother” was the show that spawned the reality TV age. But why are the shows so popular? Different theories come to life. Some believe that it is D ______ we like to watch horrible behaviour: the same instinct that once inspired the ancient Romans to go and watch gladiators destroy each other at the Coliseum. Others suggest a kind of voyeurism is involved there — an unhealthy curiosity to spy on other people’s lives.

Whatever the real reason — the trend seems to have already peaked. A lot of such shows E ______ or are expected to go in the near future. And the replacement seems to be talents shows — watching competitions in dance, singing and general entertainment. Does it mean that people are changing? It is too early to say. Most agree that these F ______ .

  1. due to basic human instinct that

  2. is still early to judge

  3. are simply the cycles of fashion

  4. but more usually the stars are members

  5. that the television phenomenon

  6. is a type of programme that

  7. seem to have disappeared

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Task 24

Mikhail Lomonosov and Moscow State University

 Mikhail Lomonosov was one of the intellectual titans of XVIII century. His interests ranged from history, rhetoric, art and poetry A ______ . Alexander Pushkin described him as В ______ , whose lifelong passion was learning.

Lomonosov’s activity is a manifestation of the enormous potential of the Russian scientific community. Peter I reformed Russia, which allowed the country to reach the standard of С ______ many spheres. Great importance was placed on education. St. Petersburg Academy of Sciences, founded by Peter I, established a university and a grammar school to educate intellectuals and researchers the country needed; however, these educational establishments could not fulfill the task they took on. It was Michail Lomonosov D ______ of establishing a university in Moscow. An influential courtier and the E ______ Count Shuvalov supported Lomonosov’s plans for a new university and presented them to the Empress.

In 1755, on 25 January-St. Tatiana’s Day according to the Russian Orthodox Church calendar — Elizaveta signed the decree that a university should be founded in Moscow. The opening ceremony took place on 26 April, when Elizaveta’s coronation day was celebrated. Since 1755 25 January and 26 April F ______ Moscow University; the annual conference where students present the results of their research work is traditionally held in April.

  1. who suggested in his letter to Count Shuvalov the idea

  2. to mechanics, chemistry and mineralogy

  3. a person of formidable willpower and keen scientific mind

  4. favourite of Empress Elizaveta Petrovna, the patron of arts and science

  5. the contemporary European powers in

  6. are marked by special events and festivities at

  7. famous among all educated people

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Task 25

Window Shopping

 The day would be spent with my best friends Kath and Kate. We are actually three Catherines (by birth spelt with a C), A______ we are all K’s: Kat (that’s me), Kath and Kate — the 3K Window Shopping gang!

Window shopping is simply wonderful. You can look at any outfit. You can try on В ______ not a single item on sale for which the price is a problem. You will try something on, ponder, pout, twirl, think hard, check yourself in the mirror one last time and finally reflect С ______ right for you! The highlight of this regular adventure however, is generally the 3K chocolate and ice cream break in the Shopping Centre’s top floor cafii Of course we do not believe that we are wasting anyone’s time. We do D ______ as well, but a reliable equation for us is — 3Ks + shopping mall = a good time.

But E ______ out to be especially memorable. One of the stores had a questionnaire lottery with the first prize being a voucher worth £200. We filled in the question forms while in the cafiiand returned to the store by their 2.00pm deadline. Kate won the first prize but we had decided in advance that if any of us won something, we would share equally: All for one К and one for all! At this point our morning of window shopping paid off. We completed F ______ slightly less than 10 minutes: three skirts, three hats and three belts and three very OK, K’s.

  1. not like to spend our time

  2. that it’s probably not quite

  3. that particular day turned

  4. our real shopping in

  5. sometimes go shopping for real

  6. anything you want and there is

  7. but when we are together

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Task 26

The Hotel

 “Have you stayed with us before sir?” asked the receptionist. His accent sounded middle-European; Czech possibly or Polish. Actually I hadn’t stayed at this particular hotel before A ______ to many others from the same chain that I had stayed at. “No — first time” I replied with unnecessary brevity. The thing is I always feel В ______ rather than treated as an individual. Every word that I was about to hear, I had heard before — delivered no doubt from the depths of a tourism and hospitality course. “Welcome to Newcastle sir. Is this your first visit to our city? Can I trouble you to complete this form? Actually the first two lines and the signature at the bottom will do. Would you like С ______ , Sir? This will automatically unlock room facilities like mini-bar and telephone and any other extras you may require. Can I see your passport sir?” The questions and information D ______ responses were actually required and I handed over my passport, credit card and partly filled out form. I was tempted to write under name and address “Donald Duck, Duck Towers, Disney Street” — E ______ ever read the form again. But being a creature of habit I wrote my real name and address. While my card was being processed I looked across the reception area through the wall height windows to the beautiful River Tyne. A wave of nostalgia came over me. It was good to be back. I found myself thinking about her again and wondering F ______ a voice broke in: “It’s a plastic key card sir. You also need it to activate the lift and when you get to your room, plug it into the switch on the left as you open the door. It will automatically supply electricity to the room. Any help with your baggage? No? Then enjoy your stay”. The accomplished young Pole smiled as he delivered the final command and duly processed, I proceeded to the card activated lift.

  1. me to take a print of your credit card

  2. points poured out smoothly, no verbal

  3. if I would even see her when

  4. although it seemed virtually identical

  5. so sure was I that nobody would

  6. me to help you with your luggage

  7. as if I am being processed like a product

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Task 27

Lindsay Wildlife Museum

 Lindsay Wildlife Museum is a unique natural history and environmental education centre where visitors can listen to the cry of a red-tailed hawk, go eye-to-eye with a grey fox and watch a bald eagle eat lunch. More than fifty species of native California animals are on exhibit here.

 Thousands of school children learn about the natural environment in their classrooms A ____ of the museum. Nature- and science- oriented classes and trips are offered for adults and children. More than 600 volunteers help to feed and care for wild animals, В _____. Volunteers are active in the museum’s work, contributing С ____.

 The museum was founded by a local businessman, Alexander Lindsay. Sandy, as friends knew him, started teaching neighborhood children about nature in the early 1950s. Initially housed in an elementary school, the museum began offering school-aged children summer classes, D ____.

 After nearly a decade of the museum operation, it became apparent E ____. With a new 5,000 square-foot home, the museum could now develop and display a permanent collection of live, native wildlife and natural history objects. People came to the museum for help with wild animals F ___ urban growth. In response, a formal wildlife rehabilitation programme — the first of its kind in the United States of America — began in 1970.

  1. that a permanent, year-round site was necessary

  2. as well as field trips focused on the natural world

  3. many hours of service to wildlife care and fundraising

  4. that had been injured or orphaned because of intense

  5. that needed public attention and a new building

  6. as well as teach children and adults about nature

  7. through education programmes and on-site tours

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Task 28

America’s fun place on America’s main street

 If any city were considered a part of every citizen in the United States, it would be Washington, DC. To many, the Old Post Office Pavilion serves A ____. If you are in the area, be a part of it all by visiting us — or В ____. Doing so will keep you aware of the latest musical events, great happenings and international dining, to say the least.

Originally built in 1899, the Old Post Office Pavilion embodied the modern spirit С ____. Today, our architecture and spirit of innovation continues to evolve and thrive. And, thanks to forward-thinking people, you can now stroll through the Old Post Office Pavilion and experience both D ____ with international food, eclectic shopping and musical events. All designed to entertain lunch, mid-day and after work audiences all week long.

A highlight of the Old Post Office Pavilion is its 315-foot Clock Tower. Offering a breath-taking view of the city, National Park Service Rangers give free Clock Tower tours every day! Individuals and large tour groups are all welcome. The Old Post Office Clock Tower also proudly houses the official United States Bells of Congress, a gift from England E ____. The Washington Ringing Society sounds the Bells of Congress every Thursday evening and on special occasions.

Visit the Old Post Office Pavilion, right on Pennsylvania Avenue between the White House and the Capitol. It is a great opportunity F ____, this is a landmark not to be missed no matter your age.

  1. that are offered to the visitors

  2. its glamorous past and fun-filled present

  3. as a landmark reminder of wonderful experiences

  4. by joining our e-community

  5. that was sweeping the country

  6. celebrating the end of the Revolutionary War

  7. to learn more about American history

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Task 29

Number of teenagers with Saturday job drops

 The number of teenagers with Saturday jobs has dropped. Young people do not acquire any experience for their CVs — a crucial step towards getting full-time work. The proportion of teenagers combining part-time jobs with school or college has slumped from 40% in the 1990s to around 20% now, according to the UK Commission for Employment and Skills (UKCES), a government agency. Latest figures show that only A ____ in 1997.

The trend is not just recession-related, but the result of an increasing expectation В ____ well as a falling number of Saturday jobs, according to the report. Many of the jobs that young people do, such as bar work, are in long-term decline, and are forecast to decline further over the next decade.

«Recruiters place significant emphasis on experience С ____,» the report says. Word of mouth is the most common way to get a job, D _____ young people are unable to build up informal contacts, it adds.

Ms. Todd, a commissioner at the UKCES, said: «There’s more emphasis on doing well at school, young people are finding less time to do what they would have done a few years ago.» «I think it’s also the changing structure of the labour market. Retail is still a big employer, E ____. As a consequence, we need to think about how we get young people the work experience they need.»

A new initiative to send employees into state schools to talk about their careers was also launched recently. The scheme, Inspiring the Future, is meant to give state schoolchildren access to the kind of careers advice that private schools offer. The deputy prime minister said: «The power of making connections F ____ and can be life-changing.»

  1. that it was researching the system of funding education after 16

  2. 260,000 teenagers have a Saturday job compared with 435,000

  3. but young people are leaving education increasingly less experienced

  4. that inspire young people is immeasurable

  5. but an increasing shortage of work experience means

  6. that young people should stay on at school, as

  7. but a lot more of it is being done online

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Task 30

Lots of fun in Cardiff

 As you would expect of a capital city, Cardiff offers a huge choice of exciting sport and entertainment throughout the year.

Every March the city celebrates St. David, Wales’ patron saint, with parades and music. August sees the International Festival of Street Entertainment, with the heart of the city A ____. Family fun days in the parks and at the waterfront are part of this sensational summer scene. Brass and military bands are often to be seen on Cardiff s streets. Between May and October the world’s only seagoing paddle steamer cruises from Cardiff’s seaside resort.

In autumn the fun continues with Cardiff s Festival of the Arts В _____. Music is at the centre of the festival, with international stars С ____. Christmas in Cardiff is full of colour and festivities. The truly spectacular Christmas illuminations have earned Cardiff the title of «Christmas City». And there is entertainment for all the family, D ____.

There is always something happening in Cardiff. The BBC National Orchestra of Wales and Welsh National Opera can both be heard here. Cardiff previews many London «West End» shows E _____.

The city’s range of accommodation facilities is truly impressive, F ____. And with a city as compact as Cardiff there are places to stay in all price brackets.

  1. from international names to family-run guest houses

  2. joining some of Wales’ most talented musicians

  3. having their summer holidays in Cardiff

  4. that usually attract hundreds of theatre lovers

  5. which features music, film, literature and graphics

  6. from pantomimes to Christmas tree celebrations

  7. beating with dance and theatrical performances

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Task 31

Changing image

 For more than 200 years Madame Tussaud’s has been attracting tourists from all over the world and it remains just as popular as it ever was. There are many reasons for this enduring success, but at the heart of it all is good, old-fashioned curiosity.

Madame Tussaud’s original concept has entered a brand new era of interactive entertainment A _____. Today’s visitors are sent on a breathtaking journey in black cabs through hundreds of years of the past. They have a unique chance to see the great legends of history, В _____ of politics.

Much of the figure construction technique follows the traditional pattern, beginning whenever possible with the subject С _____ and personal characteristics. The surprising likeliness of the wax portraits also owes much to many stars D _____, either by providing their stage clothes, or simply giving useful advice.

The museum continues constantly to add figures E ____ popularity. The attraction also continues to expand globally with established international branches in New York, Hong Kong, Amsterdam and many other cities. And they all have the same rich mix of interaction, authenticity and local appeal.

The museum provides a stimulating and educational environment for schoolchildren. Its specialists are working together with practicing teachers and educational advisors to create different programmes of activities, F ____.

  1. as well as resources on art, technology and drama

  2. as well as the idols of popular music and the icons

  3. who is sitting to determine exact measurements

  4. ranging from special effects to fully animated figures

  5. ranging from all kinds of souvenirs to sports equipment

  6. that reflect contemporary public opinion and celebrity

  7. who are eager to help in any possible way they can

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Task 32

Saturday jobs: memories of weekend working

 Research has shown a sharp fall in the number of teenagers who do Saturday jobs. It seems such a shame — my Saturday job as a kitchen porter was something of a rite of passage. I’ll never forget long hours A _____, scouring grease off huge saucepans and griddles. Working atmosphere there helped me grow a thicker skin, develop quicker banter and, most importantly, taught me the value of hard work. It also resulted in a steady supply of cash, В ____. I’m not the only one who has strong memories of weekend work. DJ Trevor Nelson said everyone should be able to have a Saturday job: «It taught me a lot, С ____.»

The link between the type of Saturday job a celebrity performed and their later career is sometimes obvious. Dragon’s Den star and businessman Peter Jones, for example, showed early promise by starting his own business. «I passed my Lawn Tennis Association coaching exam, D ____,» he explains. «At the start I was coaching other kids, E ____, for which I could charge £25-30 an hour. While my friends on milk rounds were getting £35 a week, I was doing five hours on a Saturday and earning four times as much.»

Skier Chemmy Alcott got a job working for the Good Ski Guide, on the advertising side. «It became clear to me what my personal value to companies could be. It led directly to me finding my head sponsor … and it offered me an eight-year contract. That gave me the financial backing F ____.»

As part of its response to the Saturday job statistics, the UK Commission for Employment and Skills said a lack of early work opportunities makes it harder for young people to acquire experience for their СVs.

  1. and things would be different if everyone was given the chance

  2. which let me know he approved of me

  3. and I persuaded my local club to let me use a court on Saturdays

  4. which I needed to become a professional skier

  5. which I would happily spend as I liked

  6. that I spent in the kitchen of a busy country pub in East Sussex

  7. but soon I got adults wanting to book lessons

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Task 33

Orient Express

 In the early 1860s, trains were the preferred way to travel. They weren’t particularly comfortable, however, until American engineer George Mortimer Pullman decided to make trains more luxurious.

By the late 1860s, trains furnished not only sleeping cars, but kitchen and dining facilities, where A _____. This was innovative for the time, and was aimed to encourage people В _____. The first of these Pullman trains in England ran from London to Brighton and used electricity for illumination.

In 1881, another railway entrepreneur, George Nagelmacker, introduced the use of a restaurant car onboard, and the first Orient Express train service was begun. Running from Paris to Romania the route included Strasbourg, Vienna, Budapest and Bucharest.

Thanks to the 12 mile Simplon Tunnel, С _____, the Orient Express expanded, including a route to Istanbul, and the legendary romance of the Orient Express was in full swing.

Everyone in the social register, including royalty, chose to travel on the wheels of that luxury hotel D _____ in wealthy surroundings. Legends, stories, and intrigue surrounded those trips to exotic places, and those famous people E _____.

Unfortunately, during World War II this luxury travel was closed for the most part, and later, after the war, F ____ to start it again. Within the next few years airplane travel became popular, and train passenger service declined.

  1. elegant meals were served to passengers

  2. to use trains for long distance travel and vacations

  3. who rode the train

  4. who wrote about it

  5. which connected Switzerland and Italy

  6. that served dishes and wines

  7. there was no money

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Task 34

Arizona’s world class cruise

 Spectacular Canyon Lake is situated in the heart of the Superstition Mountains in Arizona, giving home to the Dolly Steamboat. The Dolly Steamboat, A ____, now cruises the secluded inner waterways of this beautiful lake. It is worth exploring this favourite destination of President Theodore Roosevelt who declared, «The Apache Trail and surrounding area combines the grandeur of the Alps, the glory of the Rockies, the magnificence of the Grand Canyon and then adds something В ____.» You will marvel as you travel up to the national forest, which provides the most inspiring and beautiful panorama С ____. Every trip brings new discoveries of rock formations, geological history, and the flora and fauna distinct to the deserts of Arizona.

Once aboard the Dolly Steamboat, you may view the majestic desert big horn sheep, bald eagles and a host bird of other wildlife, water fowl, D ____. Experience the unique sound harmony that is created by the waters of Canyon Lake. Stretch out and relax at one of the tables or stand next to the railings on the deck. There is plenty of leg room on the Dolly. You will get a unique chance to listen to the captain E ____.

All the passengers are treated with outstanding service and personal attention to every need. Feel free to ask questions, move about and mingle with the crew. So enjoy an unforgettable vacation cruise and see F ____ ,like a ride on Arizona’s Dolly Steamboat.

  1. that nature has ever created in the wild

  2. that none of the others have

  3. hovering over the magnificent lake

  4. who retells the legends of the mysterious past

  5. for yourself why there is nothing quite

  6. who pays much attention to children’s safety

  7. continuing a tradition of cruising since 1925

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Task 35

US Congress

 The Congress of the United States of America is an important part of the US federal government.

It is an assembly of elected representatives A ____ but not to select the chief executive of the nation; that individual is elected by the people.

Congress is not a single organization; it is a vast and complex collection of organizations B ____ and through which members of Congress form alliances.

C ____, in which political parties are the only important kind of organization, parties are only one of many important units in Congress.

In fact other organizations have grown in number D ____.

The Democrats and Republicans in the House and the Senate are organized by party leaders, E ____ within the House and Senate. The party structure is essentially the same in the House as in the Senate, though the titles of various posts are different.

But leadership carries more power in the House than in the Senate because of the House rules. F _____, the House must restrict debate and schedule its business with great care; thus leaders who do the scheduling and who determine how the rules shall be applied usually have substantial influence.

  1. as party influence has declined

  2. against the spirit of the Constitution

  3. being so large (435 members)

  4. empowered to make laws

  5. unlike the British Parliament

  6. by which the business of Congress is carried on

  7. who in turn are elected by the full party membership

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Task 36

The Trailblazers

 In the early 1800s, the area that would become the western United States was completely undeveloped.

Explorers, hunters, traders, and settlers had to blaze their own trails. A____ to move possessions and supplies became common place.

Manifest Destiny was the belief that Americans had a God-given right to take over the continent. As they moved west, settlers used this policy B_____ to new people and territories.

Trails increased trade opportunities between western and eastern regions, and the U.S. economy prospered C_____ on each other for goods.

To achieve Manifest Destiny, the United States purchased land from other countries or conquered territory D_____ until its borders stretched from coast to coast.

More than one-half million people chose to travel West on trails between 1800 and 1870, E_____.

As new technology spread across the West, however, the use of trails came to an end. The railroads built thousands of miles of tracks, and, F ____, a cheap, relatively safe, and quick way to transport people and supplies to western areas existed.

  1. to spread U.S. ideas and government

  2. for the first time in history

  3. thus replacing them forever

  4. as territories became interdependent

  5. the use of covered wagons

  6. by taking land from Native peoples

  7. forming the largest mass migration in history

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Task 37

A Young Mayor

 This is a very unusual case, but as you will see, unusual doesn’t mean impossible.

An 18-year-old school girl has become the youngest mayor of a British town in history. Amanda Bracebridge, A_____, won leadership of Clun village council in a dramatic election last night. The tiny village only has 122 voters and Amanda won the election by just two votes from the only other candidate, 69-year-old Fred Gardner of the Conservative party. Amanda, B _____, was an independent candidate. She was surprised by her success, C _____. “My election promise was to make sure D _____,” she told us. She was referring to the plans from a large company to buy up farmland and build flats there. “We live in one of the most beautiful villages in Shropshire and I want to make sure it stays that way.”

Amanda, who is in her last year at nearby Bishop’s Castle High School, E _____ and her exams which she takes in two months. “It’s going to be a pretty busy few months,” she said. “But when the exams are over I will be able to concentrate completely on helping my village”.

Amanda had plans to go to university but is now going to start a year later F _____. “I’ve talked to Leeds University and they say my place will wait for me”. And what is she going to study? Politics? “No, actually, I am going to do sociology and economics”.

  1. who is not a member of any political party

  2. that our village would be protected from outside interests

  3. but it was not a total shock to her

  4. being a politics student at the university

  5. so she can do her job as mayor properly

  6. who is only just old enough to vote herself

  7. will have to find time for her work as mayor

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Task 38

Is there enough to say?

 They only appeared about ten years ago but already they are everywhere, everyone’s got one. They are the wonder of the modern age — mobile phones, or cell phones, A ____. Apparently, mobile phones are now used by about 2.5 billion people worldwide, and about one billion new mobile phones are sold every year worldwide. Go back to 1997, and only 100 million were sold. As we can see, the mobile phone business B_____.

And the developments keep on coming. Once we could only make phone calls; now mobile phones C_____ and do many other useful things. Once we had to hold our mobile phones in our hand; now we can use throat microphones. What next? We are told that soon, tiny microphones will be implanted into our lips. We’ll be able to dial numbers just by saying them.

But surely we need to ask ourselves: What’s good about this? OK, we can talk to other people almost all the time now — but is that so great? Watch and listen to people when a plane has landed. Anxious D _____, dial a number, and then: “It’s me, I’m here. I’ll be there in twenty minutes.” Is this communication? Is this what all these years of technology have brought us to?

In the early days of communication there were letters. When they arrived at your house, you knew they had been delivered by a man E _____.

In those days, people would think very hard before they wrote a letter. You had to have a good reason to write — communication was serious. Now it’s not — people phone each other F ____. Once the phone was a way for people far away from each other to talk — now it’s just an excuse to talk.

  1. has been developed very quickly

  2. not understand why they are doing it for

  3. as Americans call them

  4. riding halfway across the country on a horse

  5. just because they can

  6. can also be used to take and send photos

  7. fingers immediately switch on the mobile phone

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Task 39

Promoting language learning

 The European Union (EU) is committed to supporting the rights of its citizens to personal and professional mobility, and their ability to communicate with each other. It does so by A_____ to promote the teaching and learning of European languages. These programmes have at least one thing in common: they cover cross-border projects involving partners from two, and often three or more, EU countries.

The EU programmes are designed to complement the national education policies of member countries. Each government is responsible for its own national education policy, B_____. What the EU programmes do is to create links between countries and regions via joint projects, C____.

Since 2007 the main programmes have been put under the overall umbrella of the EU’s lifelong learning programme. All languages are eligible for support under this programme: official languages, regional, minority and migrant languages, D____. There are national information centres in each country, E_____.

The cultural programmes of the EU also promote linguistic and cultural diversity in a number of ways. The “Media” programme funds the dubbing and subtitling of European films for F ____. The “Culture” programme builds cross-cultural bridges by supporting the translation of modern authors into other EU languages.

  1. and the languages of the EU’s major trading partners

  2. which includes language teaching and learning

  3. cinemas and television in other EU countries

  4. which enhance the impact of language teaching and learning

  5. funding a number of educational programmes

  6. and encouraging people to learn new languages

  7. where details about the application procedures are given

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Task 40

Starting your own business

What are the reasons for starting your own business? One of them is because you believe you are the best in that line or because you have a product or service that has never been offered to the market before. Another is that you are a person in a real hurry and cannot suffer the A_____ to reach your goals. Sometimes it is because you have an inheritance B_____ soon after you set up a business or that there already is a cash purse with loose strings and you want to make the best of this bonanza.

If your reasons are any or all of the above, abandon the thought right now and save yourself the disillusionment C____ into the world of commerce.

Start your own business just for the sake of doing a trade, or for D____. Do not burden yourself with lofty notions of superiority when compared to your peers. When setting out to start your own business, be emotional about it, but not impractical; don’t be led by your heart, but be dictated by your mind.

Having covered those parts that are not taught in a business school, let us look at E____ your own business. You should start with a SWOT analysis – strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats – analyze these for yourself, for partners in your business, if any, and for the business itself.

If the result of the analysis is encouraging, then prepare a business plan. It is like a road map for actions in the near foreseeable future to achieve your business goals. Finally, execute the business plan with precision; tweak it as you go along, only so that it helps to meet the end goal of successfully F_____ the business.

  1. the essentials of starting

  2. that awaits when you step

  3. trials and tribulations of employment

  4. establishing and conducting

  5. preparing a business plan

  6. waiting to be acquired

  7. undertaking the commercial activity

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Task 41

Archaeology done underwater

 Nautical archaeology is the science of finding, collecting, preserving, and studying human objects that have become lost or buried under water. It is a fairly modern field of study since it depends on having the technology to be able to remain underwater for some time to do real work. Whether it is conducted in freshwater or in the sea, A____, nautical archaeology is another way of learning more about the human past.

Although some use the words nautical archaeology to mean a specialized branch of underwater archaeology, B____, most consider the term to mean the same as the words underwater archaeology or marine

archaeology. All of these interchangeable terms mean simply C_____.

Once real trade began, it is safe to say D_____ was probably transported over water at some point in time. By studying submerged objects, we can learn more about past human cultures. In fact, studying ancient artifacts is the only way to learn anything about human societies E_____. Being able to examine the actual objects made and used by ancient people not only adds to the written records they left behind, but allows us to get much closer to the reality of what life was like when they lived. Also, if we pay close attention to how the objects were made and used, we begin to get a more realistic picture of F_____.

  1. that existed long before the invention of writing

  2. that nearly every object made by humans

  3. what those people were really like

  4. which is concerned only with ships and the history of seafaring

  5. that it is the study of archaeology done underwater

  6. and whether it finds sunken ships or old cities

  7. and what was discovered underwater

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Task 42

Visiting the Royal Parks

 London has a well-deserved reputation as one of the greenest cities in Europe, with a huge number of open spaces across the center of the city. Tourists A_____ can always relax in a lovely, quiet London park.

The Royal Parks, such as St James’s, Green Park, the Regent’s Park, Hyde Park, Richmond, Greenwich, Bushy Park and Kensington Gardens, are beautifully maintained and popular with locals and visitors alike. Many are former hunting estates of English monarchs, preserved as open space B______. They are ideal places to relax and sunbathe in summer, enjoy gorgeous flower beds in spring C_____.

The Royal Parks provide fantastic green routes in London D______ and through some of the most attractive areas of the capital. Picnics in the parks are also a popular activity especially during the busy summer months.

Dogs are welcome in all the Royal Parks, although there are some places E_____. These are clearly indicated within each park and are usually ecologically sensitive sites, children’s play areas, restaurants, cafes and some sports areas. Ground nesting birds are particularly sensitive to disturbance by dogs and people. So it is necessary to observe the warning signs F____. In Bushy Park and Richmond Park dogs should be kept away from the deer.

The Royal Parks are for everyone to enjoy.

  1. that are displayed during the nesting season

  2. while the city has grown up around them

  3. and admire the changing leaves as autumn arrives

  4. where they are not allowed or should be kept on a lead

  5. who are tired of the noise, crowds and excitement of sightseeing

  6. who does not know the route to the place of destination

  7. that take cyclists away from traffic

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Task 43

The Survival of the Welsh Language

 Wales is a small country of just over 3 million people, on the north west seaboard of Europe. Despite many historical incursions of other peoples, particularly the English, it has preserved its ancient Celtic language, A_____. Welsh is habitually spoken by about 10% of the people, half understood by a further 10%, and not spoken at all by the majority in this ‘bilingual’ society.

Up to the First World War most people were Welsh speaking, especially in the mountains of North Wales. The English-speaking areas were along the more fertile coastal plains. On the whole there was an easy tolerance of the two languages, B______.

By 1919 there was a considerable drop in Welsh speakers. This was due to the large flows of capital investment from England into the South Wales coalfield, C_____.

Now, D_____, commerce and everyday business were carried out in English.

In the rural mountain areas 80% to 85% of the population were Welsh speakers, E ____. However, in the coalfield country of Glamorgan 70% spoke English only, and in its neighbour border county the figure was over 90%.

By 1931 the number of people able to speak Welsh in the whole of Wales had fallen to 37% of the population, F ____. It continued to drop and reached its lowest – 18.6% — in the 1990s. But by the start of the 21st century, numbers had begun to increase again and reached 21.7% in 2004!

  1. as well as education and the law

  2. the only one of a number of allied languages that remain

  3. with radio and the English press further speeding the decline

  4. many being able to speak Welsh only

  5. where Welsh was studied as language and literature in an academic manner

  6. apart from the fact that Welsh was not permitted to be used at all in the schools

  7. bringing a flood of immigrant labour from all over Britain

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Task 44

Secrets of Long Life

 There are places in the world where people live longer than anywhere else. The remote Japanese island of Okinawa is one of these places. While the lifespan in Britain is 77 years for men and 81 for women, Okinawa has a population of about one million, of which 900 are centenarians — A_____ in Britain or the USA. So what is their secret of long life?

«The calendar may say they’re 80, but their body says they’re 60,» says Bradley Willcox, a scientist researching the extraordinary phenomenon. The research has shown hormonal differences between Okinawans and B____ but their longevity has been linked to diet. They eat more tofu and soya than any other people in the world and also enjoy a range of different fruit and vegetables, all rich in anti-oxidants. But the most significant thing isn’t what they eat but how much. The Okinawans C_____ known as ‘hara hachi bu’, which translates as ‘eat until you are only 80 % full’.

Scientists refer to this way of eating as ‘caloric restrictions’. No-one knows exactly why it works, but scientists believe it D_____ that there is the danger of famine. This in turn E_____ and so may lead to better preservation and slower aging.

«It’s a stark contrast with the cultural habits that drive food consumption in F____ » says Mr. Willcox. If we look at high streets and supermarkets in most other countries, you will see that he is right. Restaurants offer all-you-can-eat menus and supersize portions. Supermarkets are full of special offers encouraging us to buy more food than we need.

  1. make it a healthy diet

  2. other parts of the world

  3. four times higher than the average

  4. have a cultural tradition

  5. sends a signal to the body

  6. the rest of the population

  7. makes the body protect itself

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Task 45

Beaches of Portugal

 Covering more than 850 km, the Portuguese coast boasts such a large number of fine, white sandy beaches that it is almost impossible to keep count. All bathed by the Atlantic Ocean and all different, their beauty is hard to describe, so there is nothing better A _____.

The most famous are in the Algarve. With three thousand hours of sun per year and warm waters, there are beaches to suit every taste and many dreamlike resorts. The choices are many, from sandy stretches extending as far as the eye can see B ______, the trade image of the region. They are always accompanied by a calm clear sea, C_____.

In Costa da Caparica, the beaches are particularly dear to Lisbonites D _____ for sun and sea bathing. There are deserted beaches here too, of a wild beauty, E ____ nature. In the centre, tourists will find very wide sandy stretches, to which traditional fishing adds a picturesque touch. And further north, the colder waters and the invigorating sea are tempered by the welcoming atmosphere and the clean air of the mountains and the forests.

Despite all their differences, all beaches share one thing – quality. They are safe and offer a wide range of support and recreational services, F ____. And a large number of Portuguese beaches are granted the European blue flag every year, a distinction that is a sign of their excellent conditions.

  1. where one can enjoy close contact with

  2. which meet every need of their users

  3. than to discover them once for oneself

  4. who has never been to this wonderful city

  5. which is ideal for various water sports

  6. to the smaller coves, sheltered by huge cliffs

  7. who have different options around the capital

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Task 46

The Joy of Reading

 Have you ever wondered why people read? Why reading is one of the few things A _____ for thousands of years? Even before reading became available to the general public, stories were told around campfires, passed down from generation to generation.

First of all, stories are a good way to escape from your ordinary life, to get immersed in another world, if only for a little time. While reading, you can imagine yourself in different situations B _____, but in the moment that doesn’t matter. Whether you’re suffering from depression or are just bored, reading is a great distraction.

Similarly, another reason people are attracted to stories, is because they are lonely, very often they feel as if they are the only ones in the world C _____. Identifying with a fictional character can make a big difference in helping a person understand D _____.

Other people read because it can be a good way to relax. It can be very nice to sit down and enjoy a good plot unfold, to watch the actions of fictional characters from the side, and to see the consequences of these actions, E ____.

Lastly, people read because it is the easiest way to gain knowledge in a certain area. Instead of finding a teacher, you can just find a book, sit down, and spend a few hours reading. This way you can study wherever you want, whenever you want F _____.

There are countless books in the world, and whoever you are, whatever you’re feeling, there is definitely a book out there, just waiting for you to discover it.

  1. try to avoid the boredom of life

  2. that has consistently remained part of society

  3. that they are not alone

  4. going through something difficult

  5. without having to bear any responsibility

  6. that range from unlikely to impossible

  7. at your own pace

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Task 47

Peter and Paul Fortress

 The Peter and Paul Fortress in St. Petersburg, located on small Hare Island, is the historic core of the city. The history of St. Petersburg begins with the history of the fortress.

Since 1700 Russia had been fighting the Northern War against Sweden. By 1703 the lands by the Neva River were conquered. To protect them from the attacks of the Swedes it was necessary to build a strong outpost here. The fortress was founded on Hare Island 16 (27) May, 1703 by joint plan of Peter I and French engineer Joseph-Gaspard Lambert de Guerin. This day is well known A____.

The fortress stretches from west to east with six bastions B____. The Peter’s Gate on the east side, C____, has remained since the time of Peter I. The Peter and Paul Cathedral, D____ emperors and the monument of Russian baroque, was completed after the death of the emperor, in 1733. The weathervane as a golden angel with a cross, E____, is one of the main symbols of the city. On the opposite side of the cathedral, there is the Mint building, constructed in the time of Paul I by architect A. Porto. Coinage was moved to the fortress F____ in the time of Peter I. The Peter and Paul Fortress has never directly participated in any fighting. From the very beginning of its existence it was used as a political prison. Since 1924 the Peter and Paul Fortress has been a part of the Museum of the History of St. Petersburg.

  1. as the day of the birth of St. Petersburg

  2. which was designed by D. Trezzini

  3. which was the burial place of Russian

  4. and reminding of the rich history of the city

  5. as the most protected part of the city

  6. which is located on the spire of the cathedral

  7. that are located at the corners

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Task 48

Surviving in a Desert

 A desert is defined as a place that gets less than 250 mm of rain each year. It differs sharply from the climate of a rain forest, A _____.

Arid desert lands cover about one third of the earth’s surface. Most deserts are covered with sand, B _____. There are also usually a lot of rocky areas. This combination of sand and rock means that the soil is not very fertile. C ____, some living things are able to do well in this setting. Many plants have changed and developed in ways D____. These changes have become apparent in a number of ways. Some plants are able to grow very quickly E____. They turn green and produce flowers within just a few days. Other desert plants simply stop growing in very dry weather. They appear to be dead, but when the rain returns, they come back to life and begin growing again.

Desert animals have also developed many characteristics that help them to survive in arid environment. Camels can go for a very long time without drinking. Other animals, such as snakes and rats, find cool places to sleep during the day and come out only at night. The extremely long ears of desert rabbits help them F_____. Changes like these have allowed some animals and plants to grow and develop successfully in a very challenging ecological system: the desert.

There are countless books in the world, and whoever you are, whatever you’re feeling, there is definitely a book out there, just waiting for you to discover it.

  1. which is often in the form of hills called sand dunes

  2. whenever it rains

  3. to find water as far as 25 metres away

  4. which can receive up to 10,000 mm of rain annually

  5. to better distribute their body heat and stay cool

  6. even though the desert environment is very dry and hot

  7. that help them to live in the desert

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Task 49

Nevsky Prospect

 Nevsky Prospect is the main and most famous street of St. Petersburg. The unique architectural ensemble of Nevsky Prospect was formed during the 18th – early 20th centuries. It starts from the bank of the Neva River, runs through the centre of the city and ends at the Neva River. The whole history of St. Petersburg can be seen in the history of the avenue. Nevsky Prospect is 4.5 km long and 25-60 m wide. The narrowest section is located from the Admiralty to the Moika River, A_____.

After the construction of the Admiralty in 1704 and the Alexander Nevsky Monastery in 1710, it was decided to build a road B_____ each other and with the Novgorod Path, which was used by Russian merchants. The construction began on both sides at the same time, the roads were laid through the wood, and in 1760s they were connected into one road, C_____, but with a turn at the Vosstaniya Square. Nevsky Prospect got its name only in 1783. The road was paved with cobble stones, D_____. It was the first street in St. Petersburg with gas lighting. By the early 20th century Nevsky Prospect had become the financial centre of Russia E____ had their offices there.

Nowadays, Nevsky Prospect is the centre of cultural and social life of St. Petersburg. There are museums, theatres, exhibition halls, cinemas, restaurants, cafés, shops F____.

  1. and hotels there or nearby the avenue

  2. showing the original width of the avenue

  3. which was not as straight as it was planned

  4. which were built by famous architects and

  5. connecting these two important structures with

  6. and a few rows of trees were planted along the street

  7. as the 40 largest banks of Russia, Europe and America

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Task 50

Whales in a Noisy Ocean

Whales use sound in very different ways. Some whales produce songs that travel over vast distances. They also use echolocation, like bats, A _____. But other noise in the ocean creates a problem for the whales.

Since 1987, the International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW) has sent their research vessel Song of the Whale around the world B _____. During the travels, the Song of the Whale scientists have developed expertise C ____ to listen to and record the sounds that the animals make. Thishelps them to track, identify, and survey different species.

One of the threats facing whales and other marine animals is noise pollution in the seas, such as noise from drilling, military activities, oil exploration, and coastal construction. This noise can cause great distress to whales and dolphins and can D _____.

It is feared this noise pollution may cause mass strandings, E _____. If the Song of the Whale team can F ____, then hopefully the nature and location of disturbing noise can be changed.

  1. in using underwater microphones

  2. to locate food and find their way

  3. result in injury and even death

  4. track and identify their habitats

  5. to filter out food from the water

  6. to provide a platform for marine research

  7. when large numbers come ashore

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Task 51

Unique nature of Kamchatka

Kamchatka is a peninsula located in the north-eastern part of Russia. It is surrounded with the Okhotskoye Sea, the Beringovo Sea and the Pacific Ocean. This region has a very unique environment A_____ one is looking for picturesque views, unforgettable travels and unity with nature.

Kamchatka is famous for its volcanoes, B_____. Volcanoes are represented on Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky, the most eastern city in the northern hemisphere, coat of arms as well. There are more than 300 volcanoes

in Kamchatka, from 28 up to 36 of them are active, or potentially active. Kamchatka volcanoes are included in the list of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

The region is also known C____ — rivers and lakes. Many Kamchatka rivers spring from mountain tops and glaciers, that is why they are very clean, and it is wonderful for those D_____. In general, there are up to 14 thousand rivers and streams, 100 thousand lakes and 414 glaciers in Kamchatka.

Kamchatka is a home to the Valley of Geysers, E_____ geysers in the world, after Icelandic geyser fields. It is not easily accessible, as long as it is too unique to be opened for tourists all the time. The Valley of Geysers’ ecosystem is very vulnerable, F_____ and regulate the visiting. In fact, the larger part of Kamchatka is preserved. There are many nature reserves and nature parks in Kamchatka.

  1. which are depicted on most souvenirs there

  2. so it is necessary to monitor it all the time

  3. who love fishing, including Kamchatka bears

  4. which has the second largest concentration of

  5. to be a place of many water sources

  6. to be a popular nature reserve and health resort

  7. that makes it a place to visit when

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Task 52

The life of Pi

 «The Life of Pi» published in 2001 is the third book by the Canadian author Yann Martel. It has A_____, won several prizes and been translated into forty-one languages.

At the start of the book, we B____ in India. His father owns the city zoo and the family home is in the zoo. When they aren’t at school, Pi and his brother help their father at the zoo and he learns a lot about animals.

When Pi is sixteen, his parents decide to close the zoo and move to Canada. They travel by ship taking the animals with them. On the way, there is C_____. Sadly, Pi’s family and the sailors all die in the storm, but Pi lives and finds himself in a lifeboat with a hyena, zebra, orangutan and an enormous tiger. At first, Pi is scared of the animals and jumps into the ocean. Then he remembers there are sharks in the water and decides to climb back into the lifeboat. One by one, the animals in the lifeboat kill and eat each other, till only Pi and the tiger are left alive. Luckily for Pi, there is D_____, but he soon needs to start catching fish. He feeds the tiger to stop it killing and eating him. He also uses a whistle and E_____ and show it that he’s the boss.

Pi and the tiger spend 227 days in the lifeboat. They live through terrible storms and the burning heat of the Pacific sun. They are often hungry and ill. Finally, they arrive at the coast of Mexico, but you will have to F_____ in the end!

  1. read the book to find out what happens

  2. some food and water on the lifeboat

  3. his knowledge of animals to control the tiger

  4. received an award for being strong

  5. sold seven million copies worldwide

  6. learn about Pi’s childhood in Pondicherry

  7. a terrible storm and the ship sinks

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Task 53

Santa Claus

The man we know as Santa Claus has a history all to his own. Today, he is thought of mainly as the jolly man in red, but his story A_____ the 3rd century to a monk named St. Nicholas. It is believed that Nicholas was born sometime around 280 AD in modern-day Turkey. Much admired for his kindness, St. Nicholas B_____. It is said that he gave away all of his inherited wealth and traveled the countryside helping the poor and sick. Over the course of many years, Nicholas’s popularity spread and he became known as the protector of children and sailors. His feast day C_____ his death, December 6. This was traditionally considered a lucky day to make large purchases or to get married. By the Renaissance, St. Nicholas was the most popular saint in Europe.

St. Nicholas first D______ at the end of the 18th century. The name Santa Claus evolved from a Dutch shortened form of Sint Nikolaas. As his popularity grew, Sinter Klaas was described as everything from a jocker with a blue three-cornered hat, red waistcoat, and yellow stockings to a man wearing a broad-brimmed hat and a huge pair of Flemish trousers.

In the 19th centuries big stores E_____ using images of the newly-popular Santa Claus. In 1841, thousands of children visited a Philadelphia shop to see a life-size Santa Claus model. It F_____ before stores began to attract children, and their parents, with the lure of a peek at the “real-life” Santa Claus with his famous white beard and red gown.

  1. began to advertise Christmas shopping

  2. became the subject of many legends

  3. began dressing up unemployed men in

  4. is celebrated on the anniversary of

  5. was only a matter of time

  6. stretches all the way back to

  7. appeared in American popular culture

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Task 54

Welcome to the Smithsonian

When you visit any of the Smithsonian’s 19 museums and galleries or the National zoo, you are entering the largest museum complex in the world. This complex holds about 137 million unique objects in its trust for the American people.

The Smithsonian was established in 1846 with funds given to the United States by James Smithson, an English scientist. The main idea was to increase and spread knowledge for free. And now all Smithsonian institutions are still devoted to public education, A__________ history.

Ten Smithsonian museums and galleries are located in the centre of the U.S. capital. Six other museums and the National zoo are nearby in the Washington metropolitan area, B__________.

The 19th and the newest museum C__________ is the National Museum of African American history and culture. It is now operating in the form of a virtual museum. Its key feature is the memory book, D__________. These diverse memories are linked to each other and to the museum content, E__________.

The Smithsonian complex is home to the world’s foremost research centres in science, the arts and the humanities. Besides the basic research F__________, there are a number of special facilities. Conservation centre at the zoo studies rare and endangered species, environment centre carries out research in ecosystems in the coastal area.

  1. that is carried on regularly in each of the museums

  2. providing different materials in the arts, science and

  3. placing a spotlight on people and events in African American history

  4. that has been established within the Smithsonian complex

  5. which allows website visitors to upload their own stories or images

  6. and visitors can enjoy watching rare exhibits on

  7. and two museums are situated in New York City

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Task 55

National Gallery of Art

 The National Gallery of Art was created in Washington D.C. for the people of the United States in 1937. It started with the gift of the financier and art collector A__________. His gift also included a building to house the new museum, to be constructed on the National Mall. Opened to the public in 1941, this grand building, B__________, was at the time the largest marble structure in the world.

The newly created National Gallery soon attracted similar gifts from hundreds of other collectors. This tradition of generosity continues to this day with gifts from private donors and artists C__________.

The gallery’s East building contains the collection of modern and contemporary painting, sculpture, D__________. The East and West buildings are connected by an underground tunnel with a moving walkway.

The National Gallery enjoys federal support, E__________, to fulfill its mission to exhibit and interpret great works of European and American art in the nation’s collection. Since its founding, federal funds have fostered the protection and care of the art collection and have supported the gallery’s work, ensuring F__________. Private funding helped to create a renowned collection of works of art and to construct the two landmark buildings. Private support makes possible to arrange a changing programme of special exhibitions.

  1. which is now called the West building

  2. that the gallery brings daily profit to the country

  3. who are willing to share their possessions with the public

  4. who presented old master paintings and sculptures to the country

  5. as well as partnership with private organizations

  6. that the gallery is open daily and free of charge

  7. as well as an advanced research centre and an art library

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Task 56

Healthy school meals

Children at Southdown Infants School in Bath enjoy tasty homemade meals such as roast turkey with fresh vegetables, chicken, salad and fresh fruit for pudding. Vegetables are A ____________. Instead of crisps, chocolate and sweets, the school canteen serves organic carrots, dried fruit and fresh seasonal fruit in bags for 10p, B ______________.

Southdown’s healthy eating initiative began four years ago with the start of a breakfast club.

Now Ms Culley, the head teacher of the school, says that the teachers very clearly see the link between diet and concentration. “Children’s concentration and behaviour C ______________.” The teachers would also like to give the children the experience of eating together. It turned out that some children weren’t used to that.

Pupils are also encouraged to find out more about where their food comes from by  D ______________.

Parents are also involved and are invited in to try school dinners on special occasions, E _______________.

The efforts of staff, pupils and parents to create a healthy eating environment were recognized earlier this month F ______________ the Best School Dinner award.

Ms Culley said: “We are happy to win this award. Healthy eating is at the centre of everything we do. It’s really rewarding to see so many children enjoy real food.”

  1. such as Easter and Christmas

  2. visiting a local farm

  3. local, fresh and organic where possible

  4. provide good quality food

  5. definitely improve after a good meal

  6. and about 100 bags are sold each day

  7. when the school was awarded

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Task 57

Walking is not enough to keep fit

Walking may not be enough on its own to produce significant health benefits, research suggests. A team from Canada’s University of Alberta compared a 10,000-step exercise programme with a more traditional fitness regime of moderate intensity. Researchers found improvements A _______ were significantly higher in the second group. They told an American College of Sports Medicine meeting that gentle exercise was B __________. In total 128 people took C _________. The researchers assessed influence on fitness by measuring blood pressure and lung capacity. They found out the 10,000-step programme did help to get people motivated – and was an excellent way to start D _________. But to increase the effectiveness, some intensity must be added to their exercise. “Across your day, while you are achieving those 10,000 steps, take 200 to 400 of them at a faster pace. You’ve got to do more than light exercise and include regular moderate activity, and don’t be shy to have an occasional period of time at an energetic level.” The researchers were concerned there was too much focus E __________, rather than on its intensity.

Professor Stuart Biddle, an expert in exercise science at the University of Loughborough, said it was possible that the current guidelines on how much exercise to take were set too low. “However, you have got to find F ____. The harder you make it, the fewer people will actually do it.” Professor Biddle said there was no doubt that energetic exercise was the way to get fit, but volume rather than intensity might be more useful in tackling issues such as obesity.

  1. part in the project

  2. taking exercise

  3. gave marked health benefits

  4. in fitness levels

  5. on simply getting people to take exercise

  6. not enough to get fit

  7. a compromise between physiology and psychology

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Task 58

Double-decker Bus

A double-decker bus is a bus that has two levels. While double-decker long-distance buses are in widespread use around the world, A ____. Double-decker buses are popular in some European cities and in some parts of Asia, usually in former British colonies. Many towns around the world have a few that specialize in short sight-seeing tours for tourists because, as William Gladstone observed, «the way to see London is from the top of a ‘bus'».

Double-decker buses are taller than other buses. They are extensively used in the United Kingdom, B _____, removed from normal service in December 2005 — they still operate on heritage routes. Elsewhere in Europe, double-deckers are used throughout the Dublin Bus network in Ireland, where they are making a comeback on Dublin’s outer suburban routes and also the streets of Cork, Limerick, Galway and Waterford. They are a common sight in Berlin, where the BVG makes extensive use of them. Double-decker long-distance coaches are also in widespread use throughout Europe.

Most buses in Hong Kong and about half in Singapore are double-deckers as well. The only areas in North America that C _____ are the western Canadian province of British Columbia and the United States city of Las Vegas. They are currently being tested in Ottawa on the express routes. The city of Davis, California, in the United States uses vintage double-decker buses for public transport. Davis, California is also home to the first vintage double-decker bus converted from diesel gasoline to run on CNG. The city of Victoria, BC, the city of Vancouver, British Columbia, and a couple of others use Dennis Tridents. A few are also used as tour buses, especially in New York. Double-deckers are have also been used in Mumbai since 1937.

In Brazil, D _____, some companies use double-decker buses. Double-deckers are not a good option for use outside the towns (most roads in Brazil are in very poor condition), and E _____.

Double-decker buses are in widespread use in India in many of the major cities. Some double-decker buses F _____, with no roof and shallow sides. These are popular for sightseeing tours.

  1. double-deckers are adored by thousands of tourists

  2. use double-decker buses for public transport

  3. double-decker city buses are less common

  4. where perhaps the most famous was the London Routemaster

  5. their use is being discouraged by transportation authorities

  6. have an open upper deck

  7. where buses are sometimes the only interstate transport

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Task 59

Natural Links In a Long Chain of Being

I believe we are not alone.

Even if I am on the other side of the world from the farmhouse I live in, I still dream of the ancient vines out the window, and the shed out back that my grandfather’s father built in 1870 with eucalyptus trunks. As long as I can recreate these images, A ____

All of us need some grounding in our modern world of constant moving, buying, selling, meeting and leaving. Some find constancy in religion, others in friends or community. But we need some daily signposts that we are not different, not better, B ____

For me, this house, farm, these ancient vines are those roots. Although I came into this world alone and will leave alone, I am not alone. 

There are ghosts of dozens of conversations in the hallways, stories I remember about buying new plows that now rust in the barnyard and ruined crops from the same vines C ____

All of us are natural links in a long chain of being, and that I need to know what time of day it is, what season is coming, whether the wind is blowing north or from the east, and if the moon is still full tomorrow night, D _____

The physical world around us constantly changes, E _____. We must struggle in our brief existence to find some transcendent meaning and so find relief in the knowledge F _____.

You may find that too boring, living with the past as present. I find it refreshing. There is an old answer to every new problem, that wise whispers of the past are with us. If we just listen and remember, we are not alone; we have been here before.

  1. I never quite leave home

  2. but human nature does not

  3. that we are now harvesting

  4. but we as well as our heart did not

  5. not worse than those who came before us

  6. just as the farmers who came before me did

  7. that our ancestors have gone through this before

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Task 60

The Show Begins

My Uncle Jim took me to all the Broadway shows in New York City, and I was star struck! Actually he wasn’t my real uncle – that’s just what we called him. He was a close friend of my parents. He was a bit stocky with red hair, A _________.

I remember the theaters on Broadway, B __________. The curtains were made of this real heavy, dark red material. There were huge chandelier lights hanging from the ceiling. The walls were dark, paneled wood. The seats were red and cushy C __________.

The orchestra sat at the base of the stage in a pit. I usually went down to the front to see the musicians D __________. They were all crammed into such a tiny space. I played the flute myself and my dad kept encouraging me that if I kept it up, E ___________. But truly, I didn’t want to be tucked away down there. I wanted to be on top, front and center.

Most people dressed rather finely, and certain fragrances took center stage as various women passed by. The sounds of the audience F __________ at their seats were clearly heard while last minute patrons filled in. There was electricity in the air and then the lights would go down and up, and you knew it was time for the show to get started. The lights dimmed. The music began. And you were swept up into a whole new world. I loved it!

  1. I could be playing down there someday

  2. and set real close together

  3. which were so old and posh

  4. and he had a beard and moustache

  5. I wasn’t that good at music

  6. getting ready and warming up

  7. laughing and chattering away

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Task 61

Scouting moves ahead

The Scout Movement, which is also known as the Boy Scouts has changed massively in more than 100 years, though many people do not realise this.

For many people in Britain the word “scouting” evokes images of boys in short trousers A__________. Many people imagine that the Scout Association and its female counterpart the Guides Association are old-fashioned. They think these associations are for people B__________ than the future, people who just like camping in the rain and washing in cold water.

It’s quite easy to understand why Scouts and Guides have this sort of image. The “Boy Scouts” were founded over 100 years ago by Robert Baden-Powell, a retired English army general; the “Girl Guides” followed three years later. They were organised in an almost military manner. Young people had to learn discipline and how to do things as a group. They C__________ in difficult conditions, learnt to make campfires and, yes, they certainly had to get used to washing in cold water. In those days though, that D__________ many people washed in cold water.

Nevertheless, even at the start, there was much more to scouting than that. Scouts and Guides also learned the value of solidarity. Right from the start, they had to cope with difficult situations, E__________, and play a useful part in society. Baden-Powell’s organisations were inclusive, and never exclusive; any young person could become a Scout or a Guide, regardless of race, background or religion.

Though the Scout and Guide movements began in England, they soon spread to other countries, and within 50 years, scouting F__________ with young people all over the world.

  1. who are more interested in the past

  2. and girls in blue uniforms

  3. that were generally better

  4. was not particularly unusual as

  5. went on camping expeditions

  6. interact with other people

  7. had become a popular activity

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Task 62

Skip the sun, get a glow the healthy way

Everyone at some point has wanted a “healthy glow,” whether it’s a must-have for summer, or a vacation, the thought of tan skin has crossed the minds of millions. If you are pale, it A__________. There is wild excitement when after a day in the sun your skin is tan, not burnt. Surely everyone is familiar with the famous conversation upon the realization that you got fried at the beach. Your friends reassure you with “Don’t worry it B__________.” It may all seem like fun and games at the time, but alarming new research C__________.

Some tan-seekers do it the old-fashioned way, grab a towel and hit the pool or beach. Recently, millions of young girls D__________ instead. Regardless of how the tan is achieved, any change in skin coloring is evidence of skin cell damage. This can lead to cancer. According to the Skin Cancer Foundation, melanoma, or skin cancer, among people aged 18 to 39 has risen dramatically. In the United States the number of skin cancer cases due to tanning, is higher than the number of lung cancer cases due to smoking.

While it is true that being outside and active is great for your body and the sun does provide vitamin D, everyone’s health still needs protecting. However, it’s E__________, limit time spent in direct sunlight, between the hours of 10 a.m. and 4 p.m., and wear sunscreen at all times. A fashionable option is the sun hat: both elegant and fun. Big floppy hats may seem ridiculous at first, but F__________.

Another advice is to look into sunless tanners: They are cheap and in no way endanger the lives of users. So, fake it, don’t bake it!

  1. takes a lot of time and effort to tan

  2. have been turning to tanning beds

  3. they are actually quite classy accessories

  4. better to avoid indoor tanning

  5. have inspired people to get their skin checked

  6. will eventually turn into a tan

  7. has taken the healthy out of healthy glow

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Task 63

Grant-making agency

The National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) is an independent grant-making agency of the United States government. Established in 1965, it is one of the largest sources of grant funds for humanities projects and programs in the U.S. NEH promotes knowledge of the history, thought, and culture, not only of the United States, A__________.

NEH grants facilitate research and original scholarship, strengthen teaching and learning in the humanities in American schools and colleges, give opportunities for citizens to engage in lifelong learning, B__________.

The Endowment is directed by a chairman, C__________ and confirmed by the U.S. Senate for a term of four years. Advising the chairman is the National Council on the Humanities, a board of 26 distinguished private citizens D__________ with the advice of the Senate. The National Council members serve six-year terms.

NEH grants are typically awarded to U.S. cultural institutions, such as museums, archives, libraries, colleges, universities, and public television and radio stations, E__________. Eligibility is limited to U.S. non-profit institutions and to U.S. citizens and foreigners F__________ prior to the time of application. Grants are awarded through a competitive process. The chairman takes into account the advice provided by the review process and, by law, makes all funding decisions.

  1. who is appointed by the president

  2. but of other countries of the world

  3. but in every aspect of social sciences

  4. who are also appointed by the president

  5. who have been living in the U.S. for three years

  6. as well as to individual scholars of the humanities

  7. as well as provide access to cultural and educational resources

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Task 64

The Bonfire Night

The 5th of November has always had a very special place in my heart. More important than New Year’s Eve, but probably less important than the Olympics ceremonies, the 5th of November every year is A __________ all over the country to go wild!

The night of the 5th is often cold and damp and parents wrap up their children in layers of jumpers, coats, hats, scarves and gloves. They fuss over the littlest B __________ aren’t scared. They comfort their pets and give them a safe place to curl up inside, away from the cacophony about to start outside.

Outside the bonfire is C __________ up your nose. If you’re lucky, there might be some pumpkin soup left over from Halloween to warm you up, because in spite of all the layers and the excitement, you’ll still need warming up until the bonfire gets going!

When it’s absolutely dark and the bonfire is blazing, the children and parents huddle together in groups, staring up at the sky. What are they waiting for? The screech of the first firework deafens them all and D __________. The “oohs” and “aaahs” of the crowd keep perfect time with the “kabooms” of the rockets. With every firework that lights up the sky, parents watch the delight grow on their children’s faces and sigh with relief.

After the grand finale, they make their way home with the noises still echoing in their ears. An extra special treat E __________! Waving them through the chilly air, spelling out names and drawing pictures, even the oldest members of the family remember how to be kids!

This is what the 5th of November means to me. Every year, it F __________ such bright and colourful fireworks and heard such loud bangs. I really hope I never grow out of it!

  1. differences in traditions

  2. children and hope that they

  3. the day for fireworks lovers

  4. the explosion lights up the sky

  5. feels like the first time I’ve seen

  6. waits at home though: sparklers

  7. lit and the smell of smoke creeps

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Task 65

Earth-sheltered homes

Earth-sheltered or simply underground homes are one of those creations by man, which brings him closer to nature. Unlike the normal traditional houses that A __________, these earth-sheltered homes are built using the shelter of the ground. Earth-sheltered homes can be easily made in hilly areas.

The basic idea behind the construction of such a house is that they are built with the idea of B ________ and each of these homes is built entirely different from each other.

The construction of these homes is usually done according to the shape of the area where the house is built. Their designs C ________ to the nature. The early earth houses which were initially built lacked windows. Modern day earth-sheltered homes though have windows as well as any other facility that the people living there might require.

Some of the major benefits of earth-sheltered homes are that they are naturally insulating. This makes them cool in the summer and cozy and warm in the winter. Another advantage D __________ and are well protected from earthquakes as well as wind-storms. Many earth-sheltered homes are also defended against intruders since there is usually only one entry.

As everything has its pros and cons, earth-sheltered homes also do. The interior decoration of these homes, like placing the furniture or huge paintings, E __________. These homes also have dark spaces inside and for this reason, lots of lighting is essential.

Earth-sheltered homes are one of the greenest housing designs that combines Mother Nature with eco-friendly F __________.

  1. are built on the ground

  2. are usually very organic

  3. is being built facing south

  4. being environmentally friendly

  5. building materials and lifestyle

  6. is that these homes are safe from fire

  7. can be difficult due to the construction

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

1

4

2

6

7

5

Task 66

Australia

Australia is one of the world’s most ethnically diverse nations. Nearly a quarter of the people who live in Australia A __________. They come from the United Kingdom and other European countries, but also from China, Vietnam, North Africa, and the Middle East.

First people arrived in Australia about 50,000 years ago. They B __________ land bridges when sea levels were lower. The next to land in Australia were Dutch explorers. They came in 1606. In 1788 the British began to settle there. Many settlers C __________ as punishment. For a short time, the newcomers lived peacefully with the Aboriginal people.

In 1851, gold was discovered in Australia. A rush to find riches brought D __________ 1859, six separate colonies were created which later became part of the British Commonwealth.

Australian culture is founded on stories of battlers, bushrangers and brave soldiers. Today E __________ its Aboriginal heritage, vibrant mix of cultures, innovative ideas and a thriving ecosystem.

Australia’s ecosystem is an unusual one because of its remote location. As a result, there are F __________ and nowhere else in the world, such as kangaroo and koala.

One of Australia’s most amazing sites rises like an enormous whale’s back from a flat desert called the Red Center. It is a sacred natural formation at the heart of the country and the largest rock in the world!

  1. Australia is one of the most

  2. were born in other countries

  3. Australia also defines itself by

  4. many animal species that occur here

  5. may have travelled from Asia across

  6. thousands of new immigrants, and by

  7. were criminals sent to live in Australia

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

5

7

6

3

4

Task 67

Living nature in Madeira

Right in the middle of the Atlantic, the islands of Madeira and Porto Santo are a haven of natural beauty. The exotic colours of the flowers stand out from among the blue sea and the emerald green vegetation. This is an archipelago where the big territory is a protected area and A __________ is located.

The Madeira Natural Park was created in 1982 to preserve this vast natural heritage, a worldwide rarity. The park is classified as a Biogenetic Reserve, B __________, with some rare species such as the mountain orchid, unique in the world, and also some exotic large trees. To visit this park is to discover Nature! The park covers about two-thirds of the island, making Madeira a truly ecological destination.

The springtime temperature, C __________, cries out for open air activities. Visitors can go for a walk in the park, visit the city of Funchal or roam freely around the island. Boat rides are an excellent way of D __________. In such a naturally welcoming environment, balance and well-being are taken for granted. Madeira offers various tourist complexes E __________.

Popular feasts, F __________, are opportunities to appreciate traditional gastronomic flavours and see Madeira partying, especially for the Carnival parades, the Flower festival, the Atlantic festival and, above all, the end-of-year fireworks display.

  1. which is felt all year round

  2. which take place in Madeira all year round

  3. where the largest laurel forest in the world

  4. admiring the coastline from a different perspective

  5. where one can find a unique range of flora and fauna

  6. choosing this holiday destination for its natural beauty

  7. that have prime conditions for boating and scuba diving

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

3

5

1

4

7

2

Task 68

Wild animals in cities

Have you ever seen bears in Vancouver parks, leopards on the streets of Mumbai or wild pigs in gardens in Berlin? Recently, there A __________ on TV about big animals coming into towns and cities. What happens when wild animals come into our cities? Is it dangerous for us and the animals?

Wild animals usually come into cities to look for food. In Cape Town, South Africa, baboons sometimes come into the suburbs. They eat fruit from gardens and go into people’s kitchens and take food from cupboards and fridges! Baboons are B __________ children and fight with pet dogs. Many people do not like them, but the city can be dangerous for baboons too. Sometimes, baboons are C __________ human food can be very bad for their teeth. The city council in Cape Town has a team of Baboon Monitors whose job is to find baboons D ___________ to the countryside. This makes the city safer for people and is healthier for the baboons. However, the main problem is that a lot of baboons will come back to the city to find food again.

In Berlin, Germany, groups of wild pigs have come into the city for hundreds of years, but now the winters are warmer, there are even more pigs than in the past. Pigs eat flowers and plants and dig in gardens and parks in the city. They also E __________ accidents. Some city residents like the pigs and give them food. But the city council is worried about the traffic accidents, so they F __________ have put up fences to stop the pigs coming into the city.

  1. cause lots of problems

  2. in the city and take them back

  3. walk in the street and cause traffic

  4. hurt in car accidents and the sugar in

  5. strong animals and sometimes they scare

  6. have been many reports in newspapers and

  7. have told people to stop giving the pigs food and

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

5

4

2

3

7

Task 69

Europe’s best hidden gems

There are incredible destinations in Europe known worldwide, such as Amsterdam and its canals, London and its museums, its shopping and atmosphere, or Paris, the City of Light. Europe also has thousands of hidden treasures. There is a wide selection of the finest unknown destinations in Europe, from Lugano in Switzerland  A __________.

Lugano is an international city, the crossroads and melting pot of European culture. It constitutes one of the most interesting regions to be discovered. Lugano is not only Switzerland’s third most important financial centre,  B __________ old buildings.

The area of Cinque Terre in Italy represents one of the best preserved natural sights of the Mediterranean. Human activity has contributed to creating a unique landscape in which the development of typical stone walls is so extensive C __________. All this, D __________, makes the Cinque Terre an increasingly popular location among Italian and foreign tourists.

Sintra is a jewel set between the mountains and the sea, waiting to be discovered by tourists E __________, luxuriant nature and cosmopolitan cultural offer. Sintra has a wonderful charm that left a deep impression on the soul and work of the writers F __________. Sintra is truly the capital of Romanticism. It is a place to be experienced by everyone!

  1. but showed evidence of an early human housing

  2. to Cinque Terre in Italy and Sintra in Portugal

  3. as to equal that of the famous Great Wall of China

  4. but also a town of parks and flowers, villas and

  5. who want to be lost in its majestic historical heritage

  6. combined with the beauty of a crystal clear sea

  7. who pioneered the Romantic spirit in the eighteenth century

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

4

3

6

5

7

Task 70

Beautiful cities of Italy

The political and cultural centre of Italy is the ‘Eternal City’, Rome. Ever since the Roman Empire, as its capital, Rome has become famous as a centre of European culture. The most striking sights of Rome are, of course, the Colosseum and the Forum. Once the Colosseum was able to receive about 50 thousand spectators, A __________ and concert halls. The Pantheon, the old temple of all gods, B __________, is also located in Rome.

The second most important town in Italy is Milan. Milan is the capital of fashion and C __________, exhibitions and conferences. The main attraction of Milan is its Cathedral Square, where the monument to the King Victor Emmanuel II is installed. Theatre fans will not be left disappointed by visiting the Theatre of La Scala.

The most popular city among tourists is Venice. The city is unique because it has more than 120 islands, D __________ and 400 bridges. Venice has been known for more than fifteen hundred years, and for E __________. The main area of the city is Saint Mark’s Square with the Cathedral of San Marco. One of the most beautiful buildings in Venice is the Palace of Doges. The other famous attraction is the Grand Canal F______.

In addition to this, there are such beautiful cities in Italy as Naples, Turin, Florence, Genoa, Pisa and the islands of Sardinia and Sicily. All of them are outstanding places to visit.

  1. that is the largest in Venice

  2. which was built in the early I century

  3. that everyone is dreaming about this trip

  4. which is comparable with modern stadiums

  5. which are сonnected by more than 150 canals

  6. the venue for major international festivals

  7. that time it produced a lot of attractions

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

4

2

6

5

7

1

Task 71

City of fountains

 Peterhof is a monument of world architecture and palace and park art. Peterhof includes a palace and park ensemble of the 18-19th centuries, A__________. Peterhof is a city of fountains as it contains 173 fountains and 4 cascades B__________. Each year up to 3 million people come here to enjoy the splendour of numerous fountains and the unique parks of Peterhof.

The name Peterhof was first mentioned in 1705. It was a coastal manor, close to which the construction of a grand country residence began. The original plan belonged to Peter the Great. After the brilliant victory of Russian troops over the Swedes, security of St. Petersburg both from the land C__________. Since that time, the construction of the Peterhof residence grew immensely in scope.

According to the plan of Peter the Great, on the one hand, Peterhof was meant to be equal in splendour with the most famous royal residences in Europe, D__________ to access the Baltic Sea. Both were successfully done. The Great Palace was built on a natural hill here, E__________. Following the plan of Peter the Great, F__________, the Grand Cascade with the famous Samson fountain was constructed. This is still one of the most spectacular fountains in the world. In 1990 the palaces and parks of Peterhof were included in the list of the world heritage of UNESCO.

  1. and from the sea has been firmly ensured

  2. which is a former royal countryside residence

  3. who designs many royal residences in Europe

  4. and then rebuilt in the baroque style in the 18th century

  5. who wanted to decorate the main entrance with waterfalls

  6. that are located in the park on the coast of the Gulf of Finland

  7. and on the other hand, to become a monument of Russia’s struggle

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

6

1

7

4

5

Task 72

Sights of Sochi

 Sochi is unique among other Russian cities because it has many aspects of a subtropical resort. Apart from the scenic Caucasus Mountains, pebble and sand beaches, the city attracts tourists with its vegetation, numerous parks, monuments, and extravagant architecture. About two million people visit Greater Sochi each summer, A__________. The famous Caucasian Biosphere Reserve, B__________, lies just north from the city.

Popularity of Sochi among tourists is largely explained by the beauty of its surroundings. Walking along the river Agura, everyone will admire the nature around, C__________, and amazing waterfalls. From the bridge over the Agura opens a magnificent view to the lowest Agura waterfall. In the shady Agura gorge tourists will feel the gentle coolness, D__________.

Akhun Mountain the biggest in the region has a beautiful tower on the top. The height of the tower is more than 30 metres, E__________ are stunning. The observation platform on the top of the tower gives a chance to take superb pictures of the city. Every year thousands of people visit this stone tower, F__________ the perfect view of the Black Sea coast and the Caucasus Mountains. It is a truly unforgettable experience. Tourists will enjoy visiting all the sights and the resort itself, full of exotic green and the boundless blue of the Black Sea. 

  1. and the views that open from it

  2. which is built on the top to give visitors

  3. when the subtropical resort is almost empty

  4. which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site

  5. enjoying the sound of birds singing and waterfalls gurgling

  6. when the city is home to the annual film festival “Kinotavr”

  7. including high cliffs, exotic vegetation, breathtaking canyons

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

6

4

7

5

1

2

Task 73

Saint Petersburg

 A city of palaces and museums, broad avenues and narrow canals, St. Petersburg’s short history is rich in architectural and artistic treasures. Alongside world-famous attractions such as the Hermitage and St. Isaac’s Cathedral, the city has a lot of equally interesting buildings A__________. St. Petersburg is considered to be Russia’s cultural capital. It reflects the country’s extraordinary fate like no other city.

St. Petersburg is a relatively young city, by both Russian and European standards, as B__________. Despite its short life, the city has a rich history. From the early days of Peter the Great to modern times, the city has always bustled with life and intrigue.

Lying across the delta of the Neva River, St. Petersburg, the Venice of the North, is a city C__________, some of which are well-known for their unique history. Bridges are an essential part of the city’s architectural make-up. Among the city’s over 500 bridges, there are numerous technological masterpieces. The centre of the city offers vast areas of green space, D__________.

St. Petersburg is a beautiful and fascinating holiday destination and one E__________. Whether to visit the city in a romantic and snowy Russian winter F__________, visitors will be spellbound by 
St. Petersburg’s culture and beauty. 

  1. that is built on hundreds of islands

  2. or during the dazzling white nights in summer

  3. it was only founded in 1703 by Tsar Peter the Great

  4. or considering a variety of the trip accommodation offers

  5. that reveal the mysterious and tragic genius of St. Petersburg

  6. of the most intriguing and historically significant cities in Europe

  7. including beautiful historic gardens and extensive leisure parks

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

5

3

1

7

6

2

Task 74

State Hermitage Museum

 The Hermitage is St. Petersburg’s most popular visitor attraction, and one of the world’s largest and most prestigious museums. It is a must-see for all first-time travellers to the city. With over 3 million items in its collection, it also rewards repeat visits, A__________ of the riches on offer here, from Impressionist masterpieces to fascinating Oriental treasures. It was estimated B__________ on display for just one minute. So many visitors prefer a guided tour to ensure C__________ highlights. Art-lovers, however, may find it more rewarding to seek out for themselves the works D__________.

The bulk of the Hermitage collection is housed in the Winter Palace, E__________. However, there are a number of other sites that constitute part of the Hermitage, including the recently opened Storage Facility in the north of St. Petersburg. It offers guided tours through some of the museum’s vast stocks. The magnificent General Staff Building opposite the Winter Palace is most famous for its central triumphal arch, F__________ Nevsky Prospekt. The General Staff Building contains a number of unique exhibitions. It includes the Modern European Art, probably the most visited section of the Hermitage with well-known collections of Picasso and Matisse, as well as a wealth of popular Impressionist paintings. 

  1. that they are particularly interested in

  2. that they have time to catch all the collection’s

  3. and new-comers can only hope to get a brief taste

  4. which brings pedestrians out on to Palace Square from

  5. that one would need eleven years to view each exhibit

  6. which was the official residence of the Russian emperors

  7. and the exhibition was often visited by military historians

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

3

5

2

1

6

4

Task 75

Letniy Sad

 Letniy Sad (The Summer Garden) is a park ensemble, a monument of landscape art of the 18th century. Letniy Sad is the oldest park in St. Petersburg. The park was founded by Peter I in 1704. The Tsar dreamed of his own Versailles and drew its original plan himself. He planned to create a regular, architectural park with accurate layout and straight paths. Prominent architects and gardeners took part in its creation. The park was supposed to become a place of relaxation, A__________.

Letniy Sad is surrounded by water. Natural boundary of the park from the north and east are the Neva and Fontanka Rivers, B__________.

Peter I brought sculptures from Italy for the park and was very proud of them. In the 18th century there were more than two hundred sculptures, C__________, or moved to suburban royal residences and the Hermitage. Now Letniy Sad is decorated with 90 sculptures – copies made of artificial marble.

In May, 2012 Letniy Sad was opened after reconstruction. The reconstruction work had been going on for about three years, D__________ Letniy Sad as it was in the 18th century. Among the new items in Letniy Sad, there is the Archaeological Museum, E__________ during the restoration of the park. Visitors can take a tour of the park F__________ on Sundays. 

  1. and restorers have done everything possible to keep

  2. combining the features of urban and suburban estates

  3. which are planned to be the centre of scientific research

  4. which contains interesting objects found by archaeologists

  5. but later many of them were either destroyed in the flood

  6. and enjoy the exhibitions and performances of a brass band

  7. and from the south and west – the Moika River and the Lebyazhiy Canal

Ответ

A

B

C

D

E

F

2

7

5

1

4

6

55

Текст научной статьи
на тему «МЕТОДИЧЕСКИЕ РЕКОМЕНДАЦИИ ПО ПОДГОТОВКЕ К РАЗДЕЛАМ «ГРАММАТИКА И ЛЕКСИКА» И «ПИСЬМО» ЕГЭ ПО АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ»

г/,

ВОПРОСЫ ПОДГОТОВКИ УЧИТЕЛЯ

МЕТОДИЧЕСКИЕ РЕКОМЕНДАЦИИ

ПО ПОДГОТОВКЕ К РАЗДЕЛАМ «ГРАММАТИКА И ЛЕКСИКА» И «ПИСЬМО»

ЕГЭ

ПО АНГЛИЙСКОМУ ЯЗЫКУ

Раздел экзамена «Грамматика и лексика» в 2013 г. оказался сравнительно не столь сложным, как в 2012 г. Однако некоторые, к сожалению, достаточно устойчивые проблемы проявились и на экзамене текущего года.

Группа заданий В4-В10, относится к заданиям базового уровня по грамматике. Экзаменуемые должны прочитать текст и преобразовать, если необходимо, слова, напечатанные заглавными буквами в конце строк так, чтобы они грамматически соответствовали содержанию текстов.

Наибольшие затруднения в представленном ниже варианте у экзаменуемых вызвали следующие задания: В5, В6, В9, В10.

The invention of video games

Do you know the story behind the invention of video games? Here is the story of the (В4)___video game. ONE

If you (В5)_ this READ

article in 2013, you probably imagine video games as we know them now. Nowadays we are used to online games full of colour and action.

Ключевые слова: подготовка к ЕГЭ, грамматика, лексика, письмо, экзамен по английскому языку, типичные ошибки.

However, the story about the invention of video games dates CALL back to the 1940s and to a patent registered by the US patent office. The invention patent

(В6)_____________:

«The cathode ray tube amusement.»

It was very primitive by today’s standards but has LATE given the inspiration for many video games created (В7)___.

Grandma

My grandma often comes to us to babysit my sister, Ann. Yesterday she was tired after a full day of looking after an active five-year-old, but she

(В8)_______________ to NOT

upset Ann and agreed to play WANT ball in the backyard after supper.

After 5 minutes, she (В9)

_________down on a SIT

patio chair and said, «Grandma is too old for this.»

Ann came over, put her arm around Grandma’s neck and said, «Grandma, I wish you (В10)___newer.» BE

В задании В5 (оказавшемся наиболее сложным в этой группе) с правильным ответом конкурируют варианты read и will read, хотя второй (will read) не возможен после if.

В задании В6 форма активного залога called предлагается достаточно часто, хотя перед нами классический случай пассивного залога, которым выпускники должны владеть на уровне речевых образцов и использовать в речи автоматически, не задумываясь.

В заданиях В9 экзаменуемые часто дают ответ sitted. К сожалению, эта ошибка элементарного уровня (формы Past Simple Tense неправильных глаголов) встречается во всех вариантах зада-

ний, хотя данный материал проходят в начальной школе и продолжают отрабатывать все годы изучения иностранного языка. Причем здесь от учащихся требуется самое простое — выучить ограниченный список форм неправильных глаголов. Тем не менее каждый год в ответах встречаются экзотические формы вроде builded, thinked и т.п.

В задании В10 частым ответом является are, хотя конструкция I wish, требующая глагола в форме прошедшего времени, включена в программу базового уровня и в кодификатор ЕГЭ.

В другом варианте затруднение вызвало следующее задание.

This structure is sensitive to vibrations in the water, ___by other fish. MAKE

Выбираемый многими экзаменуемыми вариант ответа — making, что показывает непонимание различий между двумя формами причастия и неумение использовать их в коммуникативно-значимом контексте.

Этот вывод подтверждается ошибками в другом задании, где чуть меньше половины экзаменуемых дали правильный ответ (beginning). Среди прочих популярностью пользовались вариации на тему began.

In 1896, Said Khalid seized power in Zanzibar. A British fleet soon arrived at the port of Zanzibar and ordered him out of the royal palace. Khalid refused to leave. At 9:02 on the morning of August 27, British ships started a fire on the palace,

____a war BEGIN

between Britain and Zanzibar.

В еще одном варианте возникла проблема со следующим заданием.

Just over 1 billion popsicles

___in the US EAT

each year. Out of the 30 flavors to choose from, orange has been the favorite for many years.

В нем многие экзаменуемые дают вариант eated или ate, реже eaten при правильном ответе are eaten. Эти ошибки подтверждают уже сделанный вывод о необходимости повторения форм неправильных глаголов, с одной стороны, и тренировки использования пассивного залога — с другой.

Указанные выше примеры позволяют сделать вывод о том, что наибольшие затруднения у выпускников вызывают любые формы с неправильными глаголами (даже самые простые) и пассивный залог.

Задания В11-В16 связаны со словообразованием. Экзаменуемые должны прочитать приведенный текст и образовать от слов, напечатанных заглавными буквами в конце строк, однокоренные слова так, чтобы они грамматически и лексически соответствовали содержанию текста. Это задание повышенного уровня сложности.

Наибольшие затруднения у экзаменуемых вызвало следующее задание.

How has London 2012 changed the sporting map of the world? The United States won the highest number of gold medals and the most medals in total, with China dropping to second place on the medals table after unprecedented________at DOMINATE

their home Olympics in Beijing four years ago.

Причем следует отметить, что указанное задание оказалось практически самым сложным в экзамене 2013 г., его выполнили правильно чуть больше 5% экзаменуемых. Большая часть из остальных участников экзамена указали вариант domination вместо dominance.

Также затруднения у большого числа экзаменуемых вызвали следующие задания.

___, however, SWIM

brought no gold medals in the Aquatics Centre.

They won just one silver and two bronze medals and a review was launched into their ___. TRAIN

Вместо swimmers часто указывалось swimming, несмотря на they в следующем предложении. Train указывалось вместо training…

Задания А22-А28 повышенного уровня сложности в части 3 раздела посвящены лексической сочетаемости. Экзаменуемые должны прочитать текст с пропусками и заполнить их, выбирая из предложенных вариантов слов.

В данном разделе, в целом выполненным учащимися достаточно успешно, наибольшие трудности у экзаменуемых вызвали следующие задания.

Michael Gilmour could A26 _

be a greater contrast. On leaving school, where Philip had been his closest friend, he

A27 _ to find a permanent job. He

started out as a trainee with Watneys, but lasted only a few months. Then he started to work as a reporter with a publishing company.

В задании А26 —

1) nearly 2) hardly 3) simply 4) merely -варианты 1 и 3 также популярны, как и правильный вариант (2).

As the year was coming to an end,

A23 _ anyone doubted that either

William or Philippa would win the prize while the other would come in second.

A24_, no one was willing to express

an opinion as to who the victor would be.

A24 1) therefore 2) however 3) although 4) moreover

Немногим более половины участников правильно выполнили задание А24 (правильный ответ — however), хотя данная цепочка слов (опций) регулярно появляется в заданиях ЕГЭ разных лет. Далеко не все выпускники владеют средствами связи предложений, что подтверждается анализом их письменных работ.

She read through the first page slowly,

aware that any mistake A27_hastily

on a Friday evening could be A28_in

the weeks to come. She glanced at the clock

on her desk as the signed the final page of the document. It was just showing 5:51. A27

1) took 2) held 3) made 4) done A28

1) apologized 2) disappointed

3) dissatisfied 4) regretted

В задании А27, которое также верно выполнили около половины участников, популярностью у экзаменуемых пользовался вариант 2 вместо правильного ответа (3), что показывает незнание лексической сочетаемости даже наиболее частотных слов (to make mistakes). В задании А28 часть экзаменуемых выбрали вариант 2 вместо правильного ответа (4), продемонстрировав непонимание различий в лексических значениях данных слов и незнание их грамматических характеристик (переходность/ непереходность) и, следовательно, конструкций, в которых они могут встречаться.

Анализируя результаты по разделу 4 «Письмо», следует отметить, что в целом выполнение экзаменуемыми заданий улучшается, однако типичными ошибками при написании личного письма (задание С1) остаются следующие.

По критерию «решение коммуникативной задачи»:

— не даны развернутые и/или полные ответы на все три вопроса;

— неправильно написано обращение (нарушен стиль);

— отсутствует благодарность за полученное письмо или ссылка на предыдущий контакт;

— отсутствует завершающая фраза или нарушен стиль ее написания;

— отсутствует фраза о надежде на будущий контакт или нарушен стиль ее написания;

— не поставлены вопросы для получения информации, либо даны не все три вопроса, либо заданные вопросы не соответствуют заданию;

— несоблюдение объема письма (занижение или превышение объема).

По критерию «организация текста»:

— неправильное деление на абзацы;

— нарушение логики;

— нарушения в использовании лексических средств логической связи;

— отсутствие адреса и/или даты;

— дан адрес того, кому направлено письмо, а не адрес отправителя;

— порядок слов в адресе не соблюден.

По критерию «языковое оформление

текста» — ошибки базового уровня в лексике, грамматике, орфографии, пунктуации.

Задание С2 (создание развернутого письменного высказывания с элементами рассуждения) значительно сложнее: это задание высокого уровня сложности, предназначенное для более тонкой дифференциации экзаменуемых с общим высоким уровнем иноязычной коммуникативной компетенции, который обеспечивается обучением по программе профильного уровня. К сожалению, после того, как было увеличено общее время на выполнение заданий КИМ ЕГЭ по иностранным языкам на 20 минут, к выполнению этого задания стали приступать практически все экзаменуемые. Это привело к снижению общего уровня выполнения задания С2. Принимая решение выполнять данное задание, экзаменуемые должны понимать, что вопрос не в том, сколько времени отводится на него, а в том, владеют ли они всем диапазоном проверяемых умений, достаточен ли их общий уровень иноязыч

Для дальнейшего прочтения статьи необходимо приобрести полный текст. Статьи высылаются в формате PDF на указанную при оплате почту. Время доставки составляет менее 10 минут. Стоимость одной статьи — 150 рублей.

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